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ENT
(Total Questions - 147)Q.1. A 28 year old woman complains of recurrent attacks of vertigo and nausea that last around 30 minutes to a few hours. They occur several times a year. Between attacks she is asymptomatic. She also reports a mild hearing loss in the left ear. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : C
Meniere’s disease :
• Dizziness, tinnitus, deafness, increased feeling of pressure in the ear.
* Vertigo is usually the prominent symptom.
• Episodes last minutes to hours
• MRI is normal
• Usually a female >> male ; 20-60 years old
• Typically symptoms are unilateral but bilateral symptoms may develop after a number of years.
Treatment:
• Acute attacks: buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine. Admission is sometimes required. Note that vertigo and nausea can be alleviated by prochlorperazine, cinnarizine, cyclizine, or promethazine.
Q.2. A 6 year old boy presents with a fever, cough and a sore throat. On examination, the tonsils are erythematous but without any exudates. There are no palpable lymphadenopathy. He had 3 similar episodes last year which were self limiting. He has a temperature of 38.3°C. The diagnosis of tonsillitis is given. What is the most appropriate treatment for this child?
Correct Answer : B
This question examines your knowledge of the indications of antibiotic use in tonsillitis and also the indications of tonsillectomy. Antipyretic analgesics such as paracetamol and ibuprofen are of proven benefit and recommended for relief of fever, headache and throat pain in patients with sore throat.
This child neither falls in the category for use of antibiotics or for a tonsillectomy.
In this case, the causative organism is likely viral. Tonsillectomy is not a treatment for the acute condition but aimed at reducing the incidence of recurrent infections.
Q.3. A 15 year old boy injured his right ear during a rugby match. He reports pain around the right pinna. On examination, the pinna of the right ear is red and tender. The tympanic membrane as found to be normal. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer : C
No further intervention is needed as the tympanic membrane is normal. This is a transient inflammation of the pinna from an injury during a hit in a rugby match. It is self limiting and of no worry.
Q.4. A new mother presents to the paediatric clinic with her 6 month old son. She says that she is worried about his development since he does not respond to loud noises. His motor milestones are normal and the patient’s mother says that he vocalizes well. The pregnancy and birth were unremarkable. What is the best management strategy for this child?
Correct Answer : A
It is important to note that even if a newborn passes this test, they could still develop hearing loss later on in their development.
There is also the possibility that hearing loss could be ‘missed’ during assessment due to the subjective nature of the test. Since this baby’s motor and verbal milestones are normal, the next best step would be to refer this child for a hearing assessment.
Q.5. An autistic 8 year old child puts a green pea in his ear while eating. Otoscopy shows a green coloured object in the ear canal. What is the most appropriate approach to remove the green pea?
Correct Answer : B
Whenever you see an intellectually disabled child with a foreign object in the ear, the answer would be removal under general anaesthesia. Consider them to be uncooperative. The pea is not a magnetic material and hence it cannot be removed by a magnet. It will swell up if syringing is attempted.
Irrigation with water is contra-indicated for soft objects, organic matter or seeds which may swell and increase the level of pain and difficulty to remove if exposed to water.
Removal by hook is not suitable if the child is uncooperative.
Olive oil only works for ear wax or used to float an insect out by pouring olive oil into the ear.
General anaesthesia to remove the foreign object is usually needed in this sort of scenario. This is to avoid injury.
Q.6. A 44 year old man presents with muffled hearing and constant high-frequency tinnitus. He also complains of the feeling of pressure in the right ear and vertigo. He has double vision when looking to the right. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer : B
Hearing loss, feeling of pressure in the ear with tinnitus, vertigo and involvement of cranial nerve e.g. right abducens nerve are suggestive of acoustic neuroma.
MRI of the cerebellopontine angle is the investigation of choice.
Q.7. A 35 year old woman has dull pain in her right ear which has been present for several weeks. The pain is located in front of the tragus of the right ear and spreads along the cheek and mandible. Chewing increases the pain. Her husband has mentioned that she grinds her teeth when she sleeps at night. The ear drum appears normal and there is no discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
The term temporomandibular disorders (TMDs) refers to a group of disorders affecting the temporomandibular joint (TMJ), masticatory muscles and the associated structures.
One of the contributing factors is muscle overactivity which include bruxism (grinding of teeth) which is seen in this stem.
Symptoms of temporomandibular disorders include facial pain, restricted jaw function and joint noise.
The pain is around the temporomandibular joint but is often referred to ENT.
Q.8. A 6 year old boy was playing at home alone when he stuck super glue into his ear. His mother has brought him to A&E and is extremely concerned. On inspection, the adhesive is in contact with the tympanic membrane. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : B
Adhesives may be removed manually within 1-2 days once desquamation has occurred. Referral to an ear, nose and throat specialist is required if an adhesive is in contact with the tympanic membrane. Foreign objects in the ear is a very commonly asked question.
You need to know the management of these specific scenarios which include super glue in ear, seed in ear, insect in ear, wax buildup, and a foreign body in ear with an uncooperative child. Another foreign body which needs an urgent ENT referral is batteries that are stuck in the auditory canal. These need to be taken out within 24 hours.
Q.9. A 29 year old diabetic woman presents to her GP surgery with a history of gradual worsening pain in the left ear for the past 5 days. She denies hearing loss. On examination, there is a small, red, tender mass at the outer third of the external canal. Insertion of the otoscope causes severe localized pain. There is no discharge seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
A furuncle also known as boils is an infected hair follicle. It may be seen as a complication of otitis externa. It is seen as an abscess of skin overlying the ear canal cartilage.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause. Furuncles are typically seen as a hard, tender, red nodule surrounding a hair follicle that enlarges over a few days. Diabetics or patients who are on immunosuppressive drugs are more predisposed to furuncles.
Most furuncles in the ear canal resolve spontaneously with some requiring flucloxicillin. Only very few of the furuncles grow larger require incision and drainage.
Q.10. A 29 year old teacher had a respiratory infection for which she was prescribed antibiotics. A few days after she finished the antibiotic course, she rejoins school but she has a weak, altered voice which was not present previously. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Functional dysphonia refers to a voice disturbance that occurs in the absence of any structural abnormality of the larynx or any cord paralysis. It is a diagnosis of exclusion.
Angioedema in severe cases can cause hoarseness but it also presents with difficulty in breathing which is not the case here.
Laryngeal obstruction like angioedema would have difficulty in breathing.
Q.11. A 9 year old girl has been referred for assessment of hearing as she is finding difficulty hearing her teacher in the class. Her hearing tests show that bone conduction is normal and symmetrical, air conduction threshold is reduced bilaterally. Weber does not lateralize. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
The diagnosis here is otitis media with effusion. The hearing tests would typically show a mild conductive hearing loss.
Otitis media with effusion : Also known as glue ear is common with the majority of children having at least one episode during childhood. An important risk factor for otitis media with effusion is parental smoking.
This is extremely important to note as questions sometimes ask which would be the best management and then provide an option of “tell parents to stop smoking”.
Presentation:
• Hearing loss is usually the presenting feature (glue ear is the commonest cause of conductive hearing loss in childhood).
May present as :
o Listening to the TV at excessively high volumes or needing things to be repeated.
o Lack of concentration, withdrawal especially in school
• Secondary problems such as speech and language delay, behavioural or balance problems may also be seen
• Rarely complains of ear pain
• May have prior history of infections (especially upper respiratory tract) or oversized adenoids.
Signs:
• Variable, eg retracted or bulging drum. It can look dull, grey, or yellow.
* There may be bubbles or a fluid level
Diagnosis:
• Audiograms: conductive defects.
• Impedance audiometry
Treatment:
• Observation
• Surgery: If persistent bilateral OME over 3 months - insert grommets
• Hearing aids: Reserve for persistent bilateral OME and hearing loss if surgery is not accepted.
Q.12. A 5 year old child complains of sore throat and earache. He has a temperature of 38.6 C. Examination shows a enlarged hyperemic tonsils with pus. He has no cough. He is not on any medication. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Tonsillitis is usually caused by a viral infection or, less commonly, a bacterial infection. The given case is a bacterial tonsillitis (probably caused a streptococcal infection).
Note that the pain for tonsillitis may be referred to the ears. If the sore throat is due to a viral infection the symptoms are usually milder and often related to the common cold. In streptococcal infection the tonsils often swell and become coated and the throat is sore. The patient has a temperature, foul-smelling breath and may feel quite ill.
The differences are variable and it is impossible to tell on inspection if the infection is viral or bacterial in real life. However in your exam, look for these main four signs that point towards tonsillitis being caused by a bacterial infection rather than a viral infection.
4 signs:
• a high temperature
• white pus-filled spots on the tonsils
• no cough
• swollen and tender lymph nodes
In this question it is unlikely to be Infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) as it affects teenagers most often. They may be quite unwell with very large and purulent tonsils and a long-lasting lethargy. An enlarged spleen is classically described.
Q.13. A 33 year old man comes to the clinic complaining of hearing loss in one ear. There is no earache, fever, vertigo, or tinnitus. On inspection, a buildup of wax is observed. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer : B
Ear wax softening drops are the first thing to try for a buildup of earwax. Prescribe ear drops for 3–5 days initially, to soften wax and aid removal.
Sodium bicarbonate 5%, sodium chloride 0.9%, olive oil, or almond oil drops can be used.
If symptoms persist, consider ear irrigation If irrigation is unsuccessful, there are three options:
• Advise the person to use ear drops for a further 3–5 days and then return for further irrigation.
• Instill water into the ear. After 15 minutes irrigate the ear again.
• Refer to an Ear Nose and Throat specialist for removal of wax.
Advise people against inserting anything in the ear. Cotton buds, matchsticks, and hair pins can cause the wax to become impacted by pushing it further into the canal.
Q.14. A 28 year old man has a headache that worsens on bending his head forward. He has no nausea or vomiting. The headache tends to be at its worst first thing in the morning and improves by the afternoon. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
The key word here is “a headache that worsens on bending his head forward”. There are two types of headaches which can worsen on bending. Sinus headaches and migraines.
Sinusitis, however, usually is not associated with nausea or vomiting.
Migraines, depending on severity, are often accompanied by nausea, vomiting and sensitivity to light.
Sinus headaches are an uncommon type of headache caused by inflamed sinuses. It happens when there is a build-up of pressure inside the sinuses and the small opening from the sinuses to the nose becomes blocked.
The pressure builds up and causes pain behind the face and head. They are felt as a dull, throbbing pain in the upper face especially in the area of the cheeks (maxillary sinus), bridge of the nose (ethmoid sinus), or above the eyes (frontal sinus).
It is usually on one side and tends to be worse first thing in the morning. The pain may get worse when you move your head, strain or bend forward. It is usually accompanied by a stuffy nose.
Examination of the facial area may reveal local tenderness, redness, swelling, and the presence of clear or discolored nasal discharge.
Remember: Both sinus headaches and migraine headache pain often gets worse when you bend forward. However migraines are more severe than sinus headaches and symptoms may include nausea and vomiting.
Q.15. A 10 year old boy presents to clinic with poor grades in school and difficulty in hearing. There has been recurrent ear infections in the past which was resolved by medication. On examination: bone conduction is normal, air conduction is reduced bilaterally, and there is no lateralization in the Weber’s test. There is no pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
In ENT the topics to focus on would be acute otitis media, otitis media with effusion and cholesteatoma.
The case scenarios where mothers notice their children “turning up the TV volume” or “doing badly in school”, before thinking of behavioral / developmental problems, go with physical problems (i.e. hearing). This is usually the presentation of otitis media with effusion.
A tympanogram would show a hearing loss. If this was his first visit, reassurance and review in 3 months would be the most appropriate.
But as this problem has been persisting for more than 12 months, a referral for a grommet insertion would be the more appropriate choice.
Q.16. A 38 year old man was slapped over his right ear during a fight. There is blood coming from his right external auditory canal. He describes the pain as intense and he also has ringing in his ears. He is also noted to have decreased hearing on that ear. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Correct Answer : D
From the history and the mechanism of injury, one can conclude that this patient has a perforated eardrum. Perforation of the eardrum can lead to a temporary conductive hearing loss, tinnitus, earache and discharge of blood or mucus or both from the ear.
Nausea and vomiting may also occur. Regardless of the fact that this patient is bleeding from the ear, the best investigation to do is still an otoscopy.
Most small perforations heal on their own however, larger perforations may need a referral to an ENT specialist.
One would not jump right away to a CT as an initial investigation for blood in the external auditory canal. If you see blood, look for the source of the blood.
Q.17. A 15 year old boy presents to A&E with a nose bleed. The bleeding started 3 hours ago and has not stopped. His blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg, heart rate is 80 bpm and respiratory rate is 18/min. What is the most appropriate next course of action?
Correct Answer : C
Treatment of epistaxis :
If haemodynamically compromised -
• arrange immediate transfer to A and E.
Use first aid measures to control bleeding e.g. Lean forward, open mouth. Pinch cartilaginous (soft) part of nose firmly and hold for 10 to 15 minutes without releasing the pressure, whilst breathing through their mouth.
If haemodynamically stable -
• just use first aid measures to control bleeding
• If bleeding does not stop after 10 - 15 minutes of nasal pressure, (and still haemodynamically stable), then do NASAL CAUTERY (using silver nitrate). If cautery is ineffective or bleeding point cannot be seen, then NASAL PACKING.
Q.18. A 34 year old man presents with right sided facial pain felt as upper jaw pain and located at the skin of the right cheek. He gives a history of having a cold 3 days ago. He feels tenderness at the anterior wall below the inferior orbital margin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
The likely diagnosis here is an acute sinusitis which is an inflammation of the membranous lining of one or more of the sinuses.
Upper respiratory tract infections are one of the predisposing factors to sinusitis which explains the history in the stem of the cold 3 days ago.
Tenderness at the anterior wall below the inferior orbital margin can be found in maxillary sinusitis.
The maxillary sinus is innervated by the infraorbital nerve and anterior, middle and posterior superior alveolar nerves. Hence, pathology here may be felt as referred pain and described as upper jaw pain, toothache or pain directly at the skin of the cheek.
Q.19. A 30 year old man was camping and an insect got stuck in his ear which he has been unable to remove. He complains that he can still hear the buzzing in the ear. On inspection, the insect is clearly visible in the ear canal. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer : C
Insects should be killed prior to removal, using 2% lidocaine. Olive oil can also be used to float the insect out by pouring olive oil into the ear.
Q.20. A 45 year old woman presents with rotational vertigo, nausea and vomiting which is worse when moving her head. She also had a similar episode 2 years ago. These episodes typically follow an event of a runny nose, cough and fever. Examination of the eardrums and cranial nerves are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
This may sound like benign paroxysmal positional vertigo but because of the history of a runny nose, cough and fever, it is more likely to be vestibular neuritis.
Vestibular neuritis follows a viral infection and can cause vertigo, nausea and vomiting on the movement of the head. Develops over hours and resolves in days. Usually followed by a viral infection.
Q.21. A 10 year old boy presents to his GP with a nose bleed. The bleeding started 1 hour ago and has not stopped. He is haemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate next course of action?
Correct Answer : B
If haemodynamically compromised -
• arrange immediate transfer to A and E.
Use first aid measures to control bleeding e.g. Lean forward, open mouth.
Pinch cartilaginous (soft) part of nose firmly and hold for 10 to 15 minutes without releasing the pressure, whilst breathing through their mouth.
If haemodynamically stable -
• just use first aid measures to control bleeding
• If bleeding does not stop after 10 - 15 minutes of nasal pressure, (and still haemodynamically stable), then do NASAL CAUTERY (using silver nitrate). If cautery is ineffective or bleeding point cannot be seen, then NASAL PACKING.
Q.22. A 52 year old woman has intermittent vertigo, tinnitus and fluctuating hearing loss. She complains of a sensation of ear pressure. The attacks can last for 2 to 3 hours. A MRI brain scan was reported as normal. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : D
This is a classic case of Meniere’s disease.
All four clues are present: dizziness, tinnitus, deafness, and increased feeling of pressure in the ear.
Treatment is prochlorperazine.
Q.23. A 26 year old woman has become aware of an increasing right-sided hearing loss since her last pregnancy. On otoscopy, her eardrums look normal. Her hearing tests show bone conduction (BC) is better than air conduction (AC) in the right ear. Weber’s test lateralizes to the right ear. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Weber’s test lateralized to the right and bone conduction is better than air conductionon the right. This clearly shows a conductive deafness on the right. There are no features of encephalopathy.
Tympanosclerosis has characteristic chalky white patches seen on inspection of the eardrum. Since the eardrum here was viewed as normal, it is unlikely to be tympanosclerosis.
The only answer left would be otosclerosis. Bone and air conduction must be tested and in otosclerosis it typically reveals a purely conductive, predominantly low-tone loss.
Other hints in this stem are:
• Female gender – otosclerosis usually occurs in females (2:1 female:male ratio)
• Pregnancy accelerates the progression of osteosclerosis. Performing both Rinne's and Weber's test allows differentiation of conductive and sensorineural deafness.
Q.24. A 45 year old man who works in a busy shipyard has been experiencing ringing in his ears and depression of sound that began soon after the onset of tinnitus. This has been going on over the past few months with worsening severity. He experiences difficulty in understanding what is said over the phone or when a few people are talking all at once in a large room. He feels that sounds seem to be gradually more muffled. What is the most likely term to describe his condition?
Correct Answer : C
Noise-induced hearing loss is hearing impairment from exposure to loud sound. In this case since the hearing loss is resulting from noise that occurs at his workplace, the shipyard, it is referred to as occupational hearing loss.
When there is excessive loud noise, the force leads to cellular metabolic overload, and damage to hair cells in the inner ear which can caue high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss. This is most often bilateral.
This patient should be referred to an audiologist who would be able to confirm a sensorineural hearing loss and provide hearing aids.
Q.25. A 4 year old girl has a painful right ear. She is irritable and has been crying and coughing. She has a temperature of 38.8 C. Otoscopy reveals a tympanic membrane which appears red. There is no light reflex visible on the tympanic membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer : A
The diagnosis can be seen with the examination of the ear.
A red tympanic membrane that is bulging is classical for otitis media. We know that the membrane is bulging because there is a loss of light reflex.
The absence of the light reflex occurs when there is a distortion of the shape of the tympanic membrane such as a bulging membrane due to an increase of inner ear pressure seen in otitis media.
Acute otitis media is acute inflammation of the middle ear and may be caused by bacteria or viruses.
Treatment : Amoxicillin.
Q.26. A 41 year old man presents with long standing foul smelling brown ear discharge and progressive hearing loss of his right ear. The discharge has persisted despite three courses of antibiotic ear drops. Otoscopy shows perforation of the pars flaccida. A pearly white soft matter is seen at the posterior margin of the perforation. What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
A cholesteatoma represents a destructive expanding growth consisting of keratinising squamous epithelium in the middle ear and/or mastoid process much like an abnormal collection of skin cells inside your ear that left untreated can continue to grow and damage the bones of the middle ear. Physical findings often show a canal filled with mucus, pus and granulation tissue.
A white mass behind the tympanic membrane is one of the other features in 90% of cases of acquired cholesteatoma, the tympanic membrane is perforated.
Congenital cholesteatoma is incorrect.
Q.27. A 48 year old man has a lump on his mandible. It has rapidly increased in size over the past 8 months. On examination, there is an induration of the skin overlying the mass. The mass is free and mobile. What is the most appropriate investigations?
Correct Answer : B
Submandibular neoplasms often appear with diffuse enlargement of the gland. Any masses of this sort need to be investigated. In fact, any salivary gland swelling that is present for more than 1 month needs to be investigated or removed.
Ultrasound-guided fine needle aspiration (FNA) cytology is used to obtain cytological confirmation.
Q.28. A 40 year old man with a 25 year history of smoking presents with progressive hoarseness of voice, difficulty swallowing and episodes of haemoptysis. He mentioned that he used to be a regular cannabis user. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
The history of cannabis here is of no value. It has no relation to laryngeal cancer or any of the above cancers.
Given the history of smoking, hoarseness of voice, dysphagia, and haemoptysis, the likely diagnosis is laryngeal cancer.
Laryngeal Cancer :
• Smoking is the main avoidable risk factor for laryngeal cancer
• Chronic hoarseness is the most common early symptom.
• Other symptoms of laryngeal cancer include pain, dysphagia, a lump in the neck, sore throat, earache or a persistent cough.
• Patients may also describe breathlessness, aspiration, haemoptysis, fatigue and weakness, or weight loss.
Q.29. A 6 year old girl has a left earache for 4 days. The earache then subsided 2 hours ago with the onset of a purulent discharge which relieved the pain. Her temperature is 39.2 C. What is the most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe?
Correct Answer : D
This is the picture of Acute Otitis Media which has led to tympanic membrane perforation. Sometimes a child may report that the pain suddenly settles. This is followed by discharge.
The reason that the pain suddenly settles is that the tympanic membrane has perforated, releasing the pressure immediately. Otitis media can be bacterial or viral but most are self limiting and do not require antibiotics.
If an antibiotic is required, prescribe a five-day course of amoxicillin.
For children who are allergic to penicillin, prescribe a five-day course of erythromycin or clarithromycin.
The most common bacterial pathogens are Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Moraxella catarrhalis and Streptococcus pyogenes of which amoxicillin would be suitable. The most common viral pathogens are respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and rhinovirus.
Q.30. A 66 year old male presents with painful swallowing. He describes it as a burning sensation that radiates to the back everytime he swallows fluid or food. What is the most likely causative organism?
Correct Answer : B
Given the options, Candida albicans would be the only culprit that would cause odynophagia.
Oesophageal candidiasis :
• Dysphagia
• Odynophagia (pain on swallowing) food or fluids
Q.31. A 7 year old boy is brought to clinic by his mother. His mother complains that he has been getting in trouble in school because he is inattentive in class. The mother also mentions that he sits close to the television at home. These problems have been going on for more than 12 months. There is no pain or fever. A tympanogram highlights conductive hearing loss at 30-dB. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : A
High yield topics to focus on would be acute otitis media, otitis media with effusion and cholesteatoma.
Q.32. A 52 year old patient is complaining of vertigo whenever she moves sideways on the bed while lying supine. She would feel as if the room is spinning and she would feel nauseous. This goes away after a few minutes but returns when she moves her head. What is the most appropriate test to perform?
Correct Answer : A
A classical scenario of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.
A Dix-Hallpike test would help provide the diagnosis > The Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre would be positive if the patient reports of vertigo and nystagmus. Whilst standing and lying blood pressure is also important in clinical practice to perform to exclude orthostatic hypotension, the description of symptoms here describe benign paroxysmal positional vertigo clearly and not orthostatic hypotension.
Q.33. A 33 year old tennis player has to stop playing tennis competetively because she has recurrent vertigo attacks every time she plays tennis. The vertigo attacks started after a history of a runny nose, cough and fever. Her hearing is not affected. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
This may sound like benign paroxysmal positional vertigo but because of the history of runny nose, cough and fever, it is more likely to be vestibular neuritis.
Vestibular neuritis follows a viral infection and can cause vertigo, nausea and vomiting on movement of the head. Vestibular neuritis develops over hours and resolves in days. Usually followed by a viral infection.
Strictly speaking the term means inflammation of the vestibular nerve but the aetiology is thought to be a vestibular neuropathy.
Presentation :
• Onset is usually very abrupt
• Recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days
• Unsteadiness, nausea and vomiting (feel as if the room is rotating)
• Moving the head aggravates symptoms
Note: Labyrinthitis is a similar syndrome to vestibular neuritis, but with the addition of hearing symptoms (sensory type hearing loss or tinnitus). There is no hearing loss with vestibular neuritis.
Q.34. A 30 year old lady has epistaxis for 30 minutes. Blood results shows: Haemoglobin 122 g/L White cell count 8 x 109/L Platelets 200 x 109/L Prothrombin time (PT), Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and bleeding time is normal What is the most likely cause of the bleed?
Correct Answer : C
All her blood work is normal. This is likely a anatomical defect. Trauma to the nose is the most common cause. Nose picking, insertion of foreign bodies and excessive nose blowing may also be seen as trauma.
Q.35. An 8 year old boy who has recently returned from Spain complains of severe pain in one ear. On examination, pus is seen in the auditory canal. The tympanic membrane looks normal. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : B
The diagnosis here is otitis externa.
Symptoms of otitis externa include minimal discharge, itch, pain and tragal tenderness due to an acute inflammation of the skin of the meatus This is a frequent question and the treatment options include: Topical gentamicin or Topical gentamicin with hydrocortisone.
Both are correct.
Q.36. A 9 year old girl has been increasing the volume of the television to an excessive level. Her parents complain that she needs them to repeat themselves constantly. On examinaiton, bone conduction is normal, air conduction is reduced bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
The diagnosis here is otitis media with effusion. The hearing tests would typically show a mild conductive hearing loss.
Q.37. A 25 year old woman complains of dizziness, nausea, and anxiety which keeps coming from time to time. She notices that the attacks are associated with sudden change in posture and these episodes last only a few seconds. She describes the sensation as “the room spinning around her”. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
The term she uses “the room spinning around her” is a classic description of vertigo. The fact that she notices this when changing posture tells us that it is likely due to a change of head position which is classic for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.
Q.38. A 7 year old boy presents with a fever, severe ear ache, and vomiting. Tonsillitis was noted on examination. Otoscopy reveals a red bulging tympanic membrane. His temperature is 38.5 C. On examination, cervical lymphadenopathy was palpated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Acute otitis media may occur after a viral upper respiratory tract infection which in this case is the tonsillitis.
Cervical lymphadenopathy which is seen in this stem is seen commonly with tonsillitis and it is one of the signs that point you towards a bacterial aetiology.
Q.39. A 52 year old with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus presents to his GP with severe pain in the ear and an intense headache. On examination, his skin around the ear is black in colour and there is a foul smelling discharge coming from the ear. He is also noted to have conductive hearing loss. Examination of the cranial nerves reveal a facial nerve palsy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Malignant otitis externa is an aggressive infection rather than a malignancy, or cancer. It is rare. In some cases, the infection can spread to the outer ear and surrounding tissue, including the bones of the jaw and face.
Despite the term “malignant” being used, it is NOT cancerous. Conductive hearing loss and foul-smelling purulent otorrhoea is also one of the features in malignant otitis external.
Risk factors for malignant otitis externa include diabetes and a weakened immune system.
Without treatment, malignant otitis externa can be fatal with a 50% mortality rate. Presentations like this need an urgent referral to ENT.
Q.40. A 29 year old man with a medical history that includes late onset asthma attends clinic with rhinorrhoea and bilateral painless nasal obstruction. He complains of reduced sense of smell. What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Nasal polyps :
• Lesions arising from the nasal mucosa, occurring at any site in the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses.
Note that nasal polyps tend to be bilateral.
Associations :
• Asthma
• Aspirin sensitivity It is particularly important to remember the association with asthma.
Note: The association of asthma, aspirin sensitivity and nasal polyps is known ans Samter’s triad.
Presentation :
• Nasal obstruction
• Rhinorrhoea
• Anosmia (loss of smell)
Q.41. A 6 year old boy was playing in the playground when he stuck a seed into his ear. He has been unable to remove it. On inspection, the seed is clearly visible in the ear canal. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : C
Irrigation with water is contra-indicated for soft objects, organic matter or seeds which may swell and increase the level of pain and difficulty to remove if exposed to water. Suction with a small catheter held in contact with the object may be effective.
Q.42. A 5 year old girl has been reported by her parents to be increasing the volume of the television to an excessive level. A hearing test conducted at school schows a symmetric loss of 40 dB. A grey bulging drum is seen on otoscopy on both ears. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
The child’s hearing loss and increasing the TV volume suggests that she has otitis media with effusion. This is supported by the otoscopy findings.
Q.43. A 7 year old boy is brought to clinic by his mother. She says that he is always turning up the TV volume and she has to shout to get his attention. There has been recurrent eatr infections in the past which was resolved by medication. On examination, a bulging drum is noticed. There is no pain or fever. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : D
This is usually the presentation of otitis media with effusion. As this is his first visit, reassurance and review in 3 months would be the most appropriate.
Q.44. An 11 year old girl presents to the clinic with hoarseness of voice. She is a known case of bronchial asthma and has been on oral steroids for half a year. What is the most likely cause of her hoarseness of voice?
Correct Answer : D
Steroids predispose to fungal infection and can cause laryngeal candidiasis which results in hoarseness.
Q.45. A 17 year old woman, with no previous history of ear complaints, presents with a two day history of severe pain in the right ear which is extremely tender to examine. Prior to the onset of pain, she was complaining of itch in her right ear. On examination, there is tenderness with movement of the tragus. Otoscopy reveals a serous discharge seen in the auditory canal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Otitis externa is difficult to examine because of tenderness. Typically there is pain when moving the tragus.
Serous discharge is more typical for an external ear infection rather than middle ear infection. In middle ear infections, the discharge is usually thick. Itching is also a common symptom with otitis externa which usually occurs before the pain begins.
Occasionally, hearing loss and fever may be seen in the stem.
Q.46. A 45 year old male presents with a whitish-grey opaque areas with red inflamed patches on his tongue. These patches are unable to be scraped off. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Leukoplakia :
• Seen as white thickening of the oral mucosa
• The key word that question writers would have to give is that “the white patch that adheres to oral mucosa cannot be removed by rubbing”
• These should be biopsied as it is premalignant.
Q.47. A 45 year old man has noticed difficulty hearing over the telephone. His hearing has been progressively getting worse over the last few years. He is concerned because his father has had similar problems around his age. Rinne’s and Weber’s test demonstrate conductive hearing loss. An audiogram shows moderate hearing loss in both ears across all frequencies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
This patient has conductive hearing loss. With that information, we are able to rule out a few options here.
Acoustic neuroma, and presbycusis present with sensorineural hearing loss, so we can cross those out right away.
Meniere’s disease classically has four clues which are present in the stem: dizziness, tinnitus, deafness, and increased feeling of pressure in the ear (Note: Vertigo being the prominent symptom).
Glue ear (Otitis media with effusion) is more common in children.
WIth the given family history, otosclerosis fits the best.
Q.48. A 10 year old child developed fever, severe earache and tonsillitis following an upper respiratory infection. On otoscopy, the tympanic membrane is distinctly red. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
In older children and adults, AOM usually presents with earache. If the child was younger, he may pull or rub his ear, or may have nonspecific symptoms such as fever, irritability, crying, poor feeding, restlessness at night, cough, or rhinorrhoea.
Q.49. A 6 year old Down syndrome boy was playing at home alone when he stuck a small piece of toy into his ear. His mother has brought him to a GP clinic and is extremely concerned. On inspection, a small foreign object is visible. The child is uncooperative and does not understand why his mother has brought him here. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : A
This patient is uncooperative and needs an ENT referral. General anaesthesia to remove the foreign object is usually needed in this sort of scenario.
Q.50. A 5 year old girl has had an upper respiratory tract infection for 3 days and has been treated with paracetamol by her mother. In the last 12 hours, she has been irritable and with severe pain in her right ear. She has a temperature of 38.3 C. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer : A
The diagnosis can be seen with the examination of the ear. A red tympanic membrane that is bulging is classical for otitis media. We know that the membrane is bulging because there is a loss of light reflex.
The absence of the light reflex occurs when there is a distortion of the shape of the tympanic membrane such as a bulging membrane due to an increase of inner ear pressure seen in otitis media.
Q.51. An 8 year old boy was brought by his mother complaining that her child seems to be watching the television at very high volumes. He lacks concentration and is socially withdrawn. He would prefer to read books indoors rather than play outdoors. What is the most likely findingto be exptected on an otoscopy?
Correct Answer : B
The diagnosis here is otitis media with effusion. The hearing tests would typically show a mild conductive hearing loss.
Q.52. A 48 year old man has difficulty hearing. Bone conduction is better than air conduction in the left ear. The sound was localised towards the left side on Weber’s test. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
“Bone conduction is better than air conduction in the left ear” tells us that patient has conductive deafness. “
The sound was localised towards the left side on Weber’s test” - as sound is localised to the affected side, then this is unilateral conductive deafness.
Q.53. A 4 year old girl presents with an anterior midline lump on her neck. It is painless, smooth and measures 1.5 cm. The swelling tends to move upwards when she protrudes her tongue. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Thyroglossal cysts represent the most common congenital anomaly of the neck and account for 2-4% of all neck masses.
They form along the embryological tract of the thyroid. They usually present as fluctuant swellings in the midline of the neck along the line of thyroid descent.
These cyst tend to move upwards on tongue protrusion because they are attached to the thyroglossal tract which attaches to the larynx by the peritracheal fascia. They are painless and mobile but can become painful if infected.
Q.54. A 55 year old man presents with swelling at the angle of the mandible which is progressively increasing in size over the past 6 months. It is painless, firm and mobile. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
The description of a mobile mass fits a benign parotid tumour such as pleomorphic adenoma. A mandibular tumour or tonsillar carcinoma would not be described as mobile. Parotitis is unlikely as parotitis is described as a painful and tender mass at the angle of the jaw.
Sjögren's syndrome does involve parotid gland enlargement and occasional tenderness but no other features of Sjögren's syndrome were given in this stem such as dryness in the eyes or mouth.
Therefore benign parotid tumour is still more likely than Sjögren's syndrome.
PLEOMORPHIC ADENOMA :
• Also called benign mixed tumour
• It is the most common tumour of the parotid gland and causes over a third of submandibular tumours
• The most common salivary gland tumour
Features :
• Presents around middle age
• Slow-growing and asymptomatic
• Solitary
• Painless
• Usually mobile
• Firm single nodular mass
Although pleomorphic adenomas are classified as a benign tumors, they have the capacity to undergo malignant transformation.
Treatment involves removing by superficial parotidectomy or enucleation.
Q.55. A 75 year old man presents with symptoms of progressive sensorineural hearing loss on the right. He also complains of dizziness and tinnitus. What is the most appropriate investigation?
Correct Answer : C
Hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo points towards an affected vestibulocochlear nerve.
An acoustic neuroma would be up on the list of differentials. An MRI of the internal auditory meatus will show a benign tumour in the cerebellopontine angle. Sometimes, in the stem, they would include facial palsy as a feature.
Q.56. A 45 year old man presents with hearing loss and tinnitus in the right ear. A 512 Hz tuning fork is used which highlights Rinne’s test having AC > BC bilaterally. Weber test lateralizes to the left. What is the next best investigation?
Correct Answer : B
MRI scan can be used to identify gross structural causes of hearing loss. They are useful in cases where a tumour is suspected or to determine the degree of damage in a hearing loss caused by bacterial infection or auto-immune disease.
Q.57. A 47 year old man has difficulty hearing on his right ear. Air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction in both ears. The sound was localised towards the left side on Weber’s test. what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
“Air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction in both ears” – tells us that this is a normal finding.
“The sound was localised towards the left side on Weber’s test” – tells us that there is unilateral sensorineural deafness on the opposite side of where the sound localises to which is right sensorineural deafness.
Q.58. A mother of a 2 day old infant is concerned about the infant’s ability to hear. The mother is still in the hospital with her newborn recovering from her caesarian section. The infant is otherwise well and born with good Apgar scores. The concern from the mother comes from the fact that the mother has had a moderate degree of permanent hearing loss during her teenage years and has to wear hearing aids. What is the most appropriate test to perform?
Correct Answer : B
Hearing screening is offered to all babies within 4 to 5 weeks of birth. Babies who were born in the hospital are normally given a newborn hearing test before they are discharged otherwise it would be done in the first few weeks of life.
The hearing screening programme offers 2 types of test:
• Automated otoacoustic emission (AOAE)
• Automated auditory brainstem response Automated otoacoustic emission (AOAE) test takes a few minutes. A soft-tipped earpiece is placed in the newborn’s ear and clicking sounds are played. Vibration of the hair cells in response to noise generates acoustic energy which is detected by a microphone in the external meatus.
If AOAE test is performed and there is no clear response in one or both eares, then the automated auditory brainstem response (AABR) test is performed. The AABR test involves placing 3 electrodes on the infant’s forehead and neck
. Clicking sounds are then played. The electrodes would measure brain wave activity in response to the clicks.
Given that AOAE test is not even an option in this question, the next most appropriate answer would be the AABR test.
AABR also has the benefit of detecting auditory neuropathy in children who are deaf but have normal otoacoustic emissions (i.e. in those who have a normal cochlea).
Q.59. A 62 year old man with a long history of smoking and alcohol presents with nasal obstruction, and on and off nose bleeds. He has a noticeable lump on his upper neck. He is having difficulty hearing with his left ear and has had worsening ear pain in that ear. Examination reveals conductive hearing loss in the left ear. What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
The first symptom of nasopharyngeal carcinoma is often a painless swelling or lump in the upper neck. This is often due to a swollen lymph node.
Other symptoms include nasal obstruction, epistaxis and otitis media from eustachian tube obstruction. Hearing loss (conductive deafness) in one ear and tinnitus are also symptoms seen in nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
Smoking and alcohol can increase the risk of nasopharyngeal carcinoma but then again, they increase risk in many other types of cancers. One specific risk factor for nasopharyngeal carcinoma is an infection with the Epstein-Barr virus.
Q.60. A 33 year old patient has a 2 year history of progressive sensorineural hearing loss and loss of corneal reflex on the left side. He is noted to have reduced facial sensation on that same side. He also complains of tinnitus and vertigo. What is the most definitive investigation?
Correct Answer : D
Hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo points towards an affected vestibulocochlear nerve. Absent corneal reflex and reduced facial sensation are due to the trigeminal nerve being affected.
Acoustic neuroma could account for these set of symptoms in which case MRI of the internal auditory meatus would reveal a benign tumour at the cerebellopontine angles causing their effects by exerting pressure on the surrounding structures.
MRI of the internal auditory meatus is a dedicated scan to look at the cerebellopontine angles. If required, an MRI of the brain could be requested later for further evaluation of the mass.
Q.61. A 17 year old man presents with sore throat for several days and dysphagia. Examination reveals a unilateral bulge, above and lateral to his left tonsil. The bulge was noted to be red and inflamed. The examination of the oral cavity was proven to be difficult as he had mild trismus. Drooling of the salive was seen. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : B
Peritonsillar abscess (Quinsy) :
• A complication of acute tonsillitis
• Pus is trapped between the tonsillar capsule and the lateral pharyngeal wall
• Typically preceded by a sore throat for several days
Presentation :
• Sore throat
• Dysphagia
• Pain localized to one side of the throat
• Peritonsillar bulge
• Uvular deviation - Bulging tonsil pushes the uvula away from the affected side
• Fever
• Trismus (difficulty opening the mouth)
• Altered voice quality ('hot potato voice') due to pharyngeal oedema and trismus
Management :
• Antibiotics (usually IV benzylpenicillin) and aspiration or formal drainage
Q.62. A 6 year old child fell on his nose 3 days ago. His parents have now brought him to the hospital as he is having difficulty in breathing and feeling unwell. He has general malaise and complains of nasal pain. On examination, nasal bones are seen to be straight however, there is tenderness over the dorsum of the nose. He has a temperature of 38.9 C. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Nasal septal abscess is the likely diagnosis here given the temperature and general malaise. Nasal septal abscess is where there is a collection of pus between the mucoperichondrium and septal cartilage. It results from a bacterial infection of a nasal septal haematoma.
This is why it is particularly important to incise and drain a septal haematoma as to prevent an abscess from forming.
Q.63. A 46 year old man has a long history of chronic sinusitis. He feels that his nose is blocked and it does not clear and he occasionally sees blood when he blows his nose. He now presents with pressure in his upper teeth, recent cheek swelling, and double vision. On examination, left maxillary tenderness is noted along with epiphora of the left eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Paranasal sinus tumours (maxillary, ethmoid, frontal, sphenoid) are commonly well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. They present with signs and symptoms similar to this stem which include with local swelling, pain, and ocular symptoms if the orbit is involved.
Pain particularly in the upper cheek, nasal obstruction, blood in nasal discharge point towards a likely diagnosis of paranasal sinus carcinoma.
Q.64. A 72 year old man presents to the outpatient clinic with the complaint of a sore throat. He says that he has had a sore throat for over three weeks now and that the over the counter medication that he’s gotten from his local pharmacy is not helping. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that he has difficulty and pain upon swallowing and his wife has noticed that his voice has gotten more hoarse over the course of the past three weeks. He says that when he tries to swallow, it feels like there’s a persistent lump in his throat. He has no neck pain, no ear pain and no history of weight loss. There is a 2 x 3 cm palpable lump on the anterolateral portion of his neck. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Correct Answer : D
Although he has not complained of any weight loss, this patient has many signs and symptoms of tonsil carcinoma. Carcinoma of the tonsil is a type of squamous cell carcinoma.
Risk factors include smoking, regular alcohol intake and HPV infection.
Tonsillitis is incorrect. Although this patient complains of a sore throat, he has no pain, no acute onset of symptoms, no fever and no swollen regional lymph nodes.
Peritonsillar abscess is incorrect
Q.65. A 39 year old man has a history of swelling in the region of the submandibular region, which became more prominent and painful on chewing. He also gives a history of sour taste in the mouth and havinga dry mouth. On palpation, the area is tender. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Sialadenitis refers to inflammation of a salivary gland and may be acute or chronic, infective or autoimmune.
The patients suffering from sialadenitis generally experience redness, swelling and pain in the affected side of the mouth.
This occurs due to the enlargement of gland as a result of inflammation caused by bacteria or virus infection.
The swelling may become enormously enlarged, sometimes even reaching the size of an orange, with overlying inflamed reddened skin and edema.
Mild pain and swelling are usually common before and during meals.
Fluctuation test may be positive in the swelling if it is filled with fluid.
Other symptoms of sialadenitis include a foul taste in the mouth, decreased mobility in the jaw, dry mouth, skin changes, weight loss, shortness of breath, keratitis, dental pain, skin discharge and lymphadenopathy.
The patient may run fever with rigors and chills along with malaise and generalized weakness as a result of septicemia. In severe cases, pus can often be secreted from the duct by compressing the affected gland.
The duct orifice is reddened with reduced flow. There may or may not be a visible or palpable stone.
Q.66. A 2 year old child is brought by his mother. The mother had hearing impairment in her early childhood and is now concerned about the child having a similar condition. What is the SINGLE best investigation to be done for the child?
Correct Answer : A
Hearing tests in the children:
• 2-4 years: Conditioned response audiometry: The child is trained to put pegs into holes or give toys to a parent on a particular auditory cue.
Q.67. A 27 year old man had a fly enter his ear. He is anxious to get the fly removed. What is the best method for removal of the fly from his ear?
Correct Answer : A
Live insects cause great distress. Drown the insect in olive oil and if necessary then syringe it out.
Q.68. A 55 year old woman presents with sudden onset of severe vertigo. She has a 4 week history of intermittent dizziness. These episodes typically occur when she suddenly moves her head or roles in bed and are characterised by the sensation that the room is ‘spinning’. Most attacks last a few seconds. Neurological examination is unremarkable. She is a known hypertensive who has been on ramipril for the last two years. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : B
BENIGN PAROXYSMAL POSITIONAL VERTIGO
• One of the most common causes of vertigo encountered.
• Characterised by the sudden onset of dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position.
Presentation:
• Vertigo usually occurs on turning over in bed or lying down (basically any movement of the head)
• Each episode typically lasts 10-20 seconds but can last a few minutes
• Nausea during episodes
Diagnosis :
• Hallpike's Manoeuvre positive
Treatment:
• Mostly spontaneous resolution with exacerbations
• Epley’s manoeuvre : A repositioning technique used to reposition otoliths back into the utricles from the posterior semicircular canals.
Q.69. A 25 year old man presents with a history of pain and swelling in the submandibular region that has been present for weeks. The pain is unilateral and more prominent during eating. The area is tender on palpation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Acute sialadenitis is an acute inflammation of a salivary gland. Patients typically present acutely in A and E with erythema over the area, pain, tenderness upon palpation, and swelling.
The infection is often the result of dehydration with overgrowth of the oral flora.
A common scenario would be postoperative dehydration. Purulent material may be observed.
Chronic sialadenitis, in contrast, is typically less painful and is associated with recurrent enlargement of the gland (often following meals) typically without erythema.
The chronic form of the disease is associated with conditions linked to decreased salivary flow, rather than dehydration. These conditions include calculi (sialolithiasis)
Q.70. A 45 year old man presents with progressive hoarseness. He has swollen vocal cords. He has a body mass index of 34 kg/m2 and he smokes 20 cigarettes a day. He also drinks 2 pints of beer a day. He has been suffering from heartburn since he was mid twenties. His diet involves eating large amounts of red meat. Investigations reveal that he has laryngeal cancer. What is the most likely cause of his cancer?
Correct Answer : C
Chronic hoarseness is the most common early symptom of laryngeal cancer. The typical patient would be an elderly male patient who smokes and presents with progressive hoarseness, then stridor, difficulty or pain on swallowing.
Later with haemoptysis and ear pain if the pharynx is involved. While it is true that alcohol is a risk factor for laryngeal cancer, smoking is the main avoidable risk factor and is known to be the number one cause of laryngeal cancers.
Q.71. A 69 year old man is brought to the clinic by his family as they are concerned that he is not hearing well. The family report that the patient expresses a decreased ability to understand speech. He finds hearing difficult, especially in noisy environments. Examination of the eardrum is normal. A pure-tone audiogram reveals a sensorineural hearing loss that is bilateral and worse at high frequencies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
This man is suffering from presbyacusis. Patients with presbyacusis often lose the ability to hear high-frequency sounds.
Speech has two components: vowels which are low-frequencies and consonants which are high-frequencies. When the high-frequency sounds are lost, consonants are lost, which results in difficulty in understanding speech.
“Don’t shout, I’m not deaf!’ is a common phrase used by elderly patients suffering from presbyacusis.
Otosclerosis is a distractor. It usually occurs at an earlier age.
Q.72. A 5-year-old girl had earache and some yellowish foul smelling discharge, perforation at the attic and conductive hearing loss. She has past history of ear infections. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Acquired cholesteatomas develop as a result of chronic middle ear infection and are usually associated with perforation of the tympanic membrane at the attic.
Clinical presentation usually consists of conductive hearing loss, often with purulent discharge from the ear.
In congenital:
• mass medial to the tympanic membrane
• normal tympanic membrane
• no previous history of ear discharge, perforation, or ear surgery.
Q.73. A 30-year-old man presents with a 5 cm neck mass anterior to the sternocleido-mastoid muscle on the left side in its upper third. He states that the swelling has been treated with antibiotics for infection in the past. What’s the most likely cause?
Correct Answer : A
Branchial cyst :
i) Branchial cyst is an anterior triangular lump.
ii) The pharyngeal pouch is a posterior triangular lump.
iii) Thyroglossal is a midline lump
iv) thyroid swelling moves with swallowing.
Q.74. A 30-year-old man complains of hoarseness of voice. Examination: unilateral immobile vocal cord. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
Q.75. A 20-year-old pop star singer complains of inability to raise the pitch of her voice. She attributes this to the thyroid surgery she underwent a few months back. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
External laryngeal nerve functions to tense the vocal cords by activating the cricothyroid muscle, increasing pitch.
Q.76. A 10-year-old boy presents with nose bleed. What measure should be taken to stop the bleeding?
Correct Answer : C
Press soft parts of the nose
Q.77. An 8-year-old returned from Spain with severe pain in one ear. Examination: pus in auditory canal, tympanic membrane looks normal. What is the treatment option?
Correct Answer : A
Gentamycin topical. Diagnosis is otitis externa.
Q.78. Patient presented with hemoptysis 7day post-tonsillectomy. What is the next step?
Correct Answer : C
Infection is a common cause of secondary haemorrhage. Patients should be admitted to observe the course of bleeding and treatment is given with IV antibiotics.
Q.79. A mentally retarded child puts a green pea in his ear while eating. The caretaker confirms this. Otoscopy shows a green colored object in the ear canal. What is the most appropriate best approach to remove this object?
Correct Answer : C
Pea is not a magnetic material and hence it cannot be removed by a magnet, it will swell up if syringing is attempted, as hook placement is likely with risk of pushing the pea deeper it is not also suitable in a mentally retarded child, and olive oil is not of help in case of pea. So to avoid injury it is better to remove under GA.
Q.80. A 32-year-old man presents with hearing loss. AC>BC in the right ear after Rhine's test. He also complains of tinnitus, vertigo and numbness on same half of his face. What is the most appropriate investigation for his condition?
Correct Answer : C
MRI. Features are suggestive of acoustic neuroma, so MRI is the preferred option.
Q.81. A 31-year-old man has epistaxis 10 days following polypectomy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Nasal infection. Infection is one of the most important causes of secondary hemorrhage.
Q.82. A 5-year-old child complains of sore throat and earache. He is pyrexial. Examination: tonsils enlarged and hyperemic, exudes pus when pressed upon. What is the most relevant diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Tonsillitis is usually caused by a viral infection or, less commonly, a bacterial infection. The given case is bacterial tonsillitis (probably caused by group A streptococcus).
There are four main signs that tonsillitis is caused by a bacterial infection rather than a viral infection.
They are:
• a high temperature
• white pus-filled spots on the tonsils
• no cough
• swollen and tender lymph nodes (glands).
Q.83. A young patient is complaining of vertigo whenever she moves sideways on the bed while lying supine. What would be the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer : A
Head roll test. This is a case of “benign paroxysmal positional vertigo” for which the diagnosis is made by head roll test.
Q.84. A 26-year-old woman has become aware of increasing right sided hearing deficiency since her recent pregnancy. Her eardrums are normal. Her hearing tests show: BCnormal. Weber test lateralizes to the right ear. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Otosclerosis. There are no features of encephalopathy. As the Weber test is lateralized it is unlikely to be functional hearing loss. In tympanosclerosis ear drum becomes chalky white. So as the eardrum is normal it is not tympanosclerosis.
Weber test is lateralized to the right and deafness is also on the right. So it is not sensorineural deafness but conductive deafness which makes otosclerosis the most likely diagnosis.
Q.85. A 30-year-old lady has epistaxis for 30 mins. Her Hgb is normal, MCV normal, WBC normal, PT/APTT/Bleeding time are normal. Where is the defect?
Correct Answer : D
Anatomical. Bleeding time, coagulation profile, Hb%, cell count, and parameters are normal. So the likely cause of bleeding here is anatomical defect.
Q.86. A 52-year-old man whose voice became hoarse following thyroid surgery 1 week ago shows no improvement. Which anatomical site is most likely affected?
Correct Answer : B
Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve
Q.87. A 10-year-old girl has been referred for assessment of hearing as she is finding difficulty in hearing her teacher in the class. Her hearing tests show: BC normal, symmetrical AC threshold reduced bilaterally, weber test shows no lateralization. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Chronic secretory OM with effusion
Q.88. A 4-year-old has earache and fever. Has taken paracetamol several times. Now it’s noticed that he increases the TV volume. His preschool hearing test shows symmetric loss of 40db. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Otitis externa.
Otitis media with effusion does not present with earache and fever. The patient has otitis media with effusion from before but currently, he has developed earache and fever and this is due to otitis externa. Please note diagnosis is made for recent complaints though other diseases may co-exist!
Q.89. A 4-year-old boy who previously had normal hearing, has a mild earache relieved by paracetamol. He has been noticed to turn up the vol on the TV. He has bilateral dull tympanic membranes. His preschool hearing test shows symmetrical loss of 40 dB. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Otitis media with effusion
Q.90. A teacher had a respiratory infection for which she was prescribed antibiotics. After the antibiotic course when she rejoined school, she lost her voice completely. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Functional dysphonia is poor voice quality without any obvious anatomical, neurological, or other organic difficulties affecting the larynx or voice box. It is often secondary to viral infection.
Q.91. A 25-year-old woman complains of dizziness, nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances and anxiety which keep coming from time to time. Most of the attacks are along with sudden change in posture. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).
Dizziness, nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus which keep coming from time to time are common features of BPPV.
Q.92. A 56-year-old male patient presents with intermittent vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss. What is the best drug treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer : A
Buccal prochlorperazine. Probable case of Menieres disease. Treated with prochlorperazine.
Q.93. Patient had a fight following which he developed bleeding, ringing and hearing loss from one ear. What is the investigation of choice?
Correct Answer : C
Otoscopy
Q.94. A 10-year-old male child was brought by his mother complaining that her child watches TV at very high volumes, doesn’t like to play outside and instead has become more sincere with reading. She also says that her son doesn’t respond to her. What do you expect to see on otoscopy?
Correct Answer : C
Bluish grey tympanic membrane with air-fluid levels.
In glue air there occur conductive deafness so the child watches TV with high volume and does not respond to others for this deafness.
Q.95. A 5-year-old girl has had an URTI for 3 days and has been treated with paracetamol by her mother. For the last 12 hours she has been hot and irritable with severe pain in her right ear. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Otitis media.
Q.96. A 28-year-old man complains of vertigo, nausea and vomiting for more than 30 mins and tinnitus, hearing loss in the left ear. What is the treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer : A
Buccal prochlorperazine.
Both prochlorperazine and cyclizine can be used in Meniere’s disease.
Q.97. A 25-year-old man presents with hoarseness of voice. He has swollen vocal cords. His BMI is 32 and he smokes 20-25 cigarettes/day. What would you advise him?
Correct Answer : A
Stop smoking.
Q.98. A patient presents with hemoptysis 7 days after tonsillectomy. What is the next step?
Correct Answer : C
Admit and IV antibiotics. Secondary hemorrhage can occur from sloughing of tissue from surgical wound following infection.
Q.99. A 17-year-old lady presents with a worm in her ear. She is very agitated and anxious. What is the next step?
Correct Answer : C
Alcohol drops. It is a living object. So it should be killed first and so alcohol drop is the correct option.
Q.100. A patient with SNHL (sensory neural hearing loss) and loss of corneal reflex on the left side. What is the most definitive investigation?
Correct Answer : C
MRI of the internal auditory meatus. The likely cause is acoustic neuroma for which appropriate investigation is MRI internal acoustic meatus.
Q.101. A 45-year-old woman presents with rotational vertigo, nausea and vomiting, especially on moving her head. She also had a similar episode 2yrs back. These episodes typically follow an event of runny nose, cold, cough and fever. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Here no sensory neural hearing loss.
SNHL present in acoustic neuroma, Meniere’s disease, and labyrinthitis.
Runny nose, cold, cough and fever are recognized triggers of vestibular neuronitis but not BPPV.
Q.102. A child playing with toys suddenly develops breathlessness and stridor. Which investigation will lead to the diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Breathlessness and stridor in a child playing with a toy is most likely due to aspiration of foreign body (toy or part of toy) for which laryngoscopy should be done.
Q.103. A boy injured his ear during a rugby match. He reported it being painful. Examination: red and tender pinna. Tympanic membrane was normal. What would be the next appropriate step?
Correct Answer : D
No further intervention is needed. As the tympanic membrane is normal this transient inflammation of the pinna from injury during a rugby match is likely self-limiting which needs no further intervention.
Q.104. A 45-year-old man presents with hearing loss and tinnitus in the right ear. Examination: weber test lateralizes to the left. Audiometry: AC > BC in both ears. What is the next best investigation?
Correct Answer : B
AC>BC indicates Rinne positive; i.e. The deafness is not conductive. Again hearing loss is on the right side.
Weber lateralized to the left. We know Weber lateralized to the same side of conductive deafness and to the opposite if there is sensory neural deafness.
So it is now obvious that the deafness of the right ear is sensory neural deafness for which MRI brain is the next best investigation.
Q.105. A 2-year-old child is brought by his mother. The mother had hearing impairment in her early childhood and is now concerned about the child. What investigation would you do? .
Correct Answer : A
Audiometry. Conditioned response audiometry 2-4 years, pure tone audiogram for greater than 5 years, less than 6 months otoacoustic emission or brainstem evoked response, distraction test for 6-18 months.
Q.106. A 13-year-old girl complains of a 2 days history of hoarseness of voice along with dry cough. She feels feverish. On direct laryngoscopy, her vocal cords are grossly edematous. What is the most appropriate investigation?
Correct Answer : A
None required. Diagnosis is laryngitis.
Q.107. A 34-year-old man had a cold 2 days back. He now presents with right sided facial pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Maxillary sinus.
Q.108. A 29-year-old man with history of asthma comes with post nasal discharge and bilateral painless nasal blockage. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Nasal polyp
Q.109. A young girl returns from holiday in Spain. She complains of discharge from her ear and complains of tragal tenderness. Exam: tympanic membrane normal. Aural toilet has been done. What is the next appropriate medicine?
Correct Answer : D
Antibiotic drop with steroid.
Discharge from ear and tragal tenderness are features of otitis externa. The key treatment is aural toileting. Drop advised is Sofradex (Framycetin + dexamethasone).
Q.110. A 49-year-old man complains of fullness in his left ear, recurrent vomiting and tinnitus. What is the most appropriate medicine?
Correct Answer : A
Buccal prochlorperazine.
Dilatation of the endolymphatic spaces of the membranous labyrinth causes sudden attacks of vertigo lasting ~2–4h (nystagmus is always present); or there may be increasing fullness in the ears ± tinnitus followed by vertigo.
Symptoms often become bilateral.
Fluctuating SNHL is common (may become permanent).
Q.111. A 4-year-old boy presents with fever, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. The diagnosis of tonsillitis has been made. He had 3 episodes last year. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Correct Answer : B
Oral penicillin V.
One of the indications of antibiotics is the presence of three or more center criteria and as the patient fulfilled three central criteria he should be given antibiotics.
The patient has the following three center criteria:
1. history of fever
2. lymphadenopathy and
3. absence of cough.
Q.112. A 4-year-old boy presents with fever, severe earache, vomiting and anorexia. He also has moderate tonsillitis. Examination: tympanic membrane bulging. He came to the GP a few days ago and was diagnosed with URTI. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Acute OM.
High fever, severe earache, vomiting, bulging tympanic membrane and H/O associated URTI is highly suggestive of acute OM.
Q.113. A young child was brought by his mother to the OPD (out patient department) complaining that he raised the volume of the TV and didn’t respond to her when she called him. Exam: tympanic membrane was dull greyish and no shadow of handle of malleus. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Secretory OM
Q.114. An 8-year-old boy has his tonsils and adenoids removed. On the 7th post-op day, he comes back to the emergency department with hemoptysis and fever. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : A
Most secondary hemorrhage occurs due to infection which erodes a vessel. So the patient should be admitted for IV antibiotics.
Q.115. A 35-year-old man presents with a headache that worsens on bending his head forward. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Chronic sinusitis
Q.116. A 20-year-old man presents with painful swallowing. Examination: trismus and unilateral enlargement of his tonsils. The peritonsilar region is red, inflamed and swollen. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : C
Incision and drainage with antibiotics.
The diagnosis is peritonsillar abscess and treatment is I&D with antibiotics.
Q.117. A 20-year-old woman with no previous history of ear complains, presents with 1 day history of severe pain in the right ear which is extremely tender to examine. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Otitis externa.
Extreme tenderness to examine indicates otitis externa.
Q.118. A 34-year-old man was slapped over his right ear in a fight. There is blood coming from his external auditory canal and he has pain, deafness and ringing in his ears. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Correct Answer : C
Traumatic perforation of the tympanic membrane (TM) can cause pain, bleeding, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo.
Diagnosis is based on otoscopy.
Treatment often is unnecessary.
Antibiotics may be needed for infection. Surgery may be needed for perforations persisting more than 2 months, disruption of the ossicular chain, or injuries affecting the inner ear.
Q.119. A 36-year-old woman has an injury to the right external laryngeal nerve during a thyroid surgery. What symptom would be expected in this patient?
Correct Answer : D
External laryngeal nerve (smaller, external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve) lesion causes mono-toned voice (loss of ability to produce pitched sound) that is dysphonia.
Q.120. A 45-year-old woman has dull pain in her right ear which has been present for several weeks. There is no discharge. Chewing is uncomfortable and her husband has noticed that she grinds her teeth during sleep. The eardrum appears normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Temporomandibular joint pain may cause pain in ear and teeth and grinding is a recognized cause of this symptom.
Q.121. A patient presents with hemoptysis 7 days after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. What is the next step of management?
Correct Answer : D
Admit and IV antibiotics.
Secondary hemorrhage can occur due to infection causing sloughing out of part of the arterial wall due to infection. It is managed by IV antibiotics following admitting the patient to hospital.
Q.122. A 41-year-old man presents with longstanding foul smelling ear discharge and progressive hearing loss. Otoscopy showed perforation of the pars flacida and a mass in the upper part of the middle ear. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
In congenital cholesteatoma there is usually no perforation. In acquired cholesteatoma perforation is in pars flaccida.
Q.123. A 52-year-old male with poorly controlled DM has now presented to his GP with pain in the ear. Examination: skin around the ear is black in color and there was foul smelling discharge from the ear. Patient also had conductive hearing loss. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Malignant OE.
In some cases, otitis externa can spread to the outer ear and surrounding tissue, including the bones of the jaw and face. This infection is known as malignant otitis externa. Although the term malignant is used it is not a cancer.
Q.124. A 10-year-old child has got progressive bilateral hearing loss. He has started to increase the TV volume. All other examination is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Bilateral OM with effusion
Q.125. A 10-year-old boy presents with irritability, sudden onset of pain and discharge from the right ear. Which antibiotic would be the 1st line of treatment?
Correct Answer : A
For acute suppurative otitis media 1st line antibiotic is Amoxycillin..
Q.126. A man developed intense pain after using the end of a pencil to scratch his inner ear. He took out the pencil from his ear and realized the end of the pencil with the rubber part is still stuck in his ear. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : A
Remove with a hook.
Place a hook behind the object and pull it out.
Q.127. A 16-year-old boy presents with acute pain in the right ear and little bleeding from the same ear. He had been in a boxing match and had sustained a blow to the ear. There is little amount of blood in the auditory canal and a small perforation of the eardrum. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : C
Small perforations are usually healed by themselves within 6-8 weeks and doctors often prescribe antibiotics to prevent infections during this healing period.
Q.128. A 45-year-old man has noticed difficulty hearing on the telephone. He is concerned because his father has been moderately hard of hearing since middle age. BC=normal. An audiogram shows moderate hearing loss in both ears across all frequencies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
This patient has conductive hearing loss. So it is not acoustic neuroma.
Meniere’s disease has symptoms like vertigo, tinnitus, fullness, along with hearing loss. There is no history of noise pollution, not presbycausis as his age is 45.
So his deafness fits more with otosclerosis.
These are by exclusion. Points in favour of otosclerosis:
i) Conductive hearing loss.
ii) Age of 45 yrs
iii) Moderate hearing loss in both ears across all frequencies.
Q.129. A 34-year-old man has supra-orbital pain and tenderness and developed tenderness over the maxilla. He also has mild fever. What is the likely cause for these symptoms?
Correct Answer : A
There is supraorbital pain in frontal sinusitis and tenderness over the maxilla in maxillary sinusitis. Also, mild fever may present in acute sinusitis.
Q.130. A 27-year-old female who had a RTA 7 months back now complaints of attacks of sudden onset rotational vertigo which comes on with sharp movements of the head and neck. Which of the following would be most helpful?
Correct Answer : B
Hallpikes maneuver.
Vertigo which comes on with sharp movement of the head and neck points towards the diagnosis of benign positional vertigo which can be demonstrated by the Hallpike maneuver.
Q.131. A 2-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The child is screaming that there is something in her ear and she appears agitated. Exam: a plastic bead is seen inside the ear. What is the best method of removal?
Correct Answer : C
Under general anesthesia
Q.132. A patient, a small child presented with URTI (upper respiratory tract infection) and later developed fever, earache and tympanic membrane is dull. What is the likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Fever, earache and dull tympanic membrane following URTI are pointing to the diagnosis of acute otitis media.
Q.133. A 72-year-old male who is a regular smoker has come to the emergency department with complaints of loss of weight and loss of appetite. He also complains of odynophagia. Examination: actively bleeding ulcer on right tonsil. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Tonsillar carcinoma
Q.134. A patient with regular episodes of SNHL (sensory neural hearing loss), vertigo and tinnitus lasting >30 min. Neurological examination normal. What is the likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Meniere’s disease.
SNHL vertigo and tinnitus lasting 30 minutes are consistent with Meniers disease. Here attacks are episodic symptoms resolve but hearing loss is progressive. In acoustic neuroma, hearing loss is not episodic.
Otosclerosis is also not episodic and conductive type. Benign positional vertigo, no hearing loss, and vertigo with sharp posture change. Unilateral loss of vestibular function and hearing associated with nausea and vomiting which is preceded by viral infection.
Q.135. A 22-year-old man reports a 2 days history of hoarseness of voice. He denies any weight loss but he has been smoking for 4 years. What is the most appropriate investigation?
Correct Answer : A
If horseness is of >3 weeks in man >50 yrs and smoker and heavy drinker to rule out cancer do CXR and laryngoscopy- NICE guideline.
Q.136. A 62-year-old man presents with left sided hearing loss and tinnitus. He also complains of vomiting and headache. Examination: papilledema and SNHL (sensory neural hearing loss) in the left ear. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Acoustic neuroma.
SNHL, tinnitus, and papilledema (raised intracranial pressure) are suggestive of acoustic neuroma.
Q.137. A 30-year-old lady complaining of right ear deafness with decreased corneal reflex and past pointing. Acoustic analysis shows SNHL (sensory neural hearing loss). What is the next most appropriate investigation to do?
Correct Answer : D
MRI acoustic canal.
Diagnosis is right sided acoustic neuroma.
Q.138. A 7-year-old boy presents with epistaxis of 2 hours duration. The bleeding has been controlled. Investigation: Platelets 210, PT 13, APTT 42, bleeding time normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Anatomical defect
Q.139. A 43-year-old presents with severe vertigo on moving sidewards whilst sleeping. What test would you do to confirm the diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Hallpike maneuver is the preferred method to detect benign positional vertigo.
Q.140. A 23-year-old man is having difficulty in speaking following a stab wound to the right of his neck. On being asked to protrude his tongue, the tip deviated to the right. Which anatomical site is most likely to be affected?
Correct Answer : B
In hypoglossal nerve palsy the tongue will be curved toward the damaged side, combined with the presence of fasciculations or atrophy of the tongue on the same side.
Q.141. A 10-year-old boy develops nasal bleeding. What is the best way to stop the bleeding from the nose?
Correct Answer : C
Pressure over the soft tissues
Q.142. A 38 -yeark-old man has just returned from a holiday where he went swimming everyday. For the last few days he has had irritation in both ears. Now his right ear is hot, red, swollen and acutely painful. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
The swimming history, irritation in both ears, and ear being hot, red, swollen, and painful indicates inflammation of the external acoustic meatus called Otitis Externa.
Q.143. An 8-year-old girl has had left earache for 2 days. The earache subsided about 2 hours ago with the onset of a purulent discharge which relieved the pain. Her temperature is 39.2C. What is the most appropriate antibiotic?
Correct Answer : A
This is the picture of Acute Otitis Media which has led to tympanic membrane perforation.
PO Amoxicillin for 7 days is the antibiotic of choice.
Q.144. A 38-year-old woman has just returned from a holiday where he went swimming every day. For the last few days he has irritation in both ears. Now his right ear is hot, red, swollen and acutely painful. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Presentation may prompt one to think otitis media, but in swimming there is only exposure of the external ear to the water and no other risk factor for otitis media!! So it is not otitis media but otitis externa.
Q.145. A 7-year-old 7 days post tonsillectomy presents with nose bleed. He is currently not bleeding. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : B
Bleeding from post operative site may occur from infection which causes necrosis and sloughing out of dead tissue. So such bleeding is treated by antibiotics to control risk of further bleeding.
Q.146. A 32-year-old woman is having intermittent episodes of vertigo. Each episodes lasts up to 12 hours and is associated with tinnitus and hearing loss. Which is the medication that may help in reducing the frequency of the vertigo episode?
Correct Answer : C
The case described is Menier’s disease and to reduce the frequency of vertigo episodes (Prophylaxis) betahistine is given.
Q.147. A mother brings her 2 days old baby worried she could be deaf. The mother is deaf herself and there is family history of deafness as well. What is the most appropriate investigation?
Correct Answer : A
Birth to 6 months, Brainstem evoked response.
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