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OPHTHALMOLOGY
(Total Questions - 85)Q.1. A 45 year old woman has itchy, dry eyes. There is mild pain in the morning but worsens during the day. She says her eyes feel gritty especially in an air conditioning room. A Schirmer’s test was performed and results show 7 mm of moisture on the filter paper. What is the most appropriate management? (A normal Schirmer’s test is considered to have more than 10 mm of moisture on the filter paper)
Correct Answer : A
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is the diagnosis here which is described as decreased lacrimal secretion characterized by conjunctival hyperaemia and itchiness.
It occurs commonly as part of Sjogren’s syndrome. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is confirmed by Schirmer’s test and the treatment always includes the use of artificial tears. Schirmer’s test determines whether the eye produces enough tears to keep it moist.
It is considered negative or normal when there is more than 10 mm of moisture on the filter paper in 5 minutes.
Various tear substitutes can be used to treat dry eyes. They can be in the form of drops, gels, and ointments.
Examples of drops include:
• Hypromellose
• Sodium chloride
• Sodium hyaluronate Note that topical ciclosporin is also useful for dry eyes but it should not be used as the first line.
Scleral lenses can also be used as they create a tear-filled reservoir which prevents the feeling of dry eyes but again should not be used as the first line. Scleral lenses are expensive.
Q.2. A 25 year old man has a burning sensation in his left eye for the last 2 days. His eye is red and has thick purulent discharge. His lids are often stuck shut on waking. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer : C
Bacterial conjunctivitis management :
• Most cases of infective conjunctivitis do not need medical treatment and clear up in one to two weeks.
• Gently clean away sticky discharge from your eyelids and lashes using cotton wool soaked in water.
• If the decision is made to use antibiotics. Chloramphenicol drops are the drug of choice.
Types of conjunctivitis:
1. Bacterial conjunctivitis:
• Purulent discharge
• Eyes may be ‘stuck together’ in the morning.
2.Viral conjunctivitis:
• Serous discharge
• Recent URTI
• Preauricular lymph nodes
Allergic conjunctivitis:
• Bilateral symptoms
• Itch is prominent
• May give a history of atopy
• May be seasonal (due to pollen) or perennial.
Q.3. A 35 year old HIV positive man presents with progressive visual deterioration. He complains of blurred vision and floaters. On examination, multiple cotton wool spots are seen in both eyes. What is the most likely causative organism?
Correct Answer : D
One of the rare manifestations of cytomegalovirus includes retinitis. It is usually seen in an immunocompromised host (e.g. a positive HIV patient) like in this stem. Although it is rare, retinitis is still the most common manifestation of CMV disease in patients who are HIV positive.
Very early CMV may resemble cotton wool spots.
Cytomegalovirus retinitis :
- Decreased visual acuity, floaters, and loss of visual fields on one side
- Examination shows yellow-white cloudy retinal lesions. Lesions may appear at the periphery of the fundus, but they progress centrally.
- It begins as a unilateral disease, but in many cases, it progresses to bilateral involvement.
Given that, if a patient with positive HIV attends with visual deterioration, cytomegalovirus should be at the top of your differential.
Q.4. A 32 year old woman complains of dull pain in her right eye for the past one week which worsens when moving her eye. Her past medical history includes multiple sclerosis which was diagnosed 6 months ago. An opthalmoscopy shwos pallor of the optic disc. Which anatomical site is most likely to be affected?
Correct Answer : A
Optic neuritis is a relatively common presenting symptom of Multiple Sclerosis. It is due to the demyelination of the optic nerve.
OPTIC NEURITIS :
Inflammation of the optic nerve.
One of the most common causes of optic neuritis is multiple sclerosis.
The stem would usually include a female patient as multiple sclerosis is more prevalent in the female gender.
Examination-
Swollen optic disc
Optic disc becomes pale later (4 to 6 weeks after onset)
Relative pupillary defect (RAPD) of affected eye.
Q.5. A 34 year old man has an acute painful, red right eye for the last 24 hours. He complains of blurring of vision. He has a past medical history of cervical spondylitis and is on chronic diclofenac treatment for the past 4 years for back pain and stiffness. On examination, his pupil is irregular in shape and he is very sensitive to light. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Because of this patient’s past medical history of cervical spondylitis, iridocyclitis is the most likely answer.
Please note the following for exam:
1. Anterior uveitis is also referred to as iritis and iridocyclitis
2. Intermediate uveitis is also known as pars planitis or varitis
3. Posterior uveitis is also called chorioretinitis
4. The most common cause of chronic anterior uveitis is sarcoidosis
5. The most common form of uveitis is anterior uveitis Anterior uveitis. Also referred to as iritis. It is one of the important differentials of a red eye.
Q.6. A 45 year old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus has his annual checkups. Ophthalmoscopy shows dot and blot haemorrhage with hard exudates. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
The diagnosis here is background retinopathy. Remember how to distinguish the types of diabetic retinopathy. Also, remember that type I diabetes mellitus is a common cause of retinopathy.
Background retinopathy (nonproliferative) :
- Microaneurysms (dots)
- Haemorrhage (blots)
- Hard exudates
Preproliferative retinopathy :
- Addition of Cotton wool spots
Proliferative retinopathy :
- Addition of new vessel formation (neovascularization)
- More serious.
- Progresses rapidly to blindness.
- May lead to vitreous haemorrhage
- Floaters in vision
- Laser photocoagulation is needed.
Q.7. A 33 year old man presents to clinic with a history of early morning back pain, stiffness and a painful red right eye. The pain in the eye started last night. On examination, his right pupil is seen to have a distorted pupil shape. His visual acuity is unaffected. What is the most likely affected anatomical structure?
Correct Answer : C
A middle-aged man with early morning back pain and stiffness is suggestive of seronegative arthritis likely ankylosing spondylitis where anterior uveitis (iritis) is a known association.
It is also important to note that visual acuity for iritis is initially normal but can worsen as time passes. The abnormally shaped pupil is another giveaway.
Q.8. A 4 year old child is taken by his mother to the Emergency Department as he is having pain around his right eye. He is febrile with a temperature of 38.5 C. This swelling started two days ago with a gradual onset. On examination, there is a tender, erythematous swelling around his right eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Periorbital cellulitis presents similarly to this stem whereby there is an acute onset of swelling, redness, increased warmth, and tenderness of the eyelid. Fever is often a feature. Periorbital cellulitis is also commonly seen in children.
Do not confuse periorbital cellulitis with orbital cellulitis which involves orbital signs such as gaze restriction, proptosis, and pain on eye movements. Orbital cellulitis is an emergency and requires intravenous antibiotics.
Q.9. A 33 year old female complains of double vision which started yesterday. On examination, a fixed dilated pupil which does not accommodate and drooping eyelid can be seen on the left eye. Her left eye is displaced outward and downwards. She has no significant past medical history. There was no history of trauma. What is the most appropriate investigation to perform?
Correct Answer : B
This is a case of oculomotor nerve palsy. Diplopia, mydriasis, ptosis, and outward downward deviation of the eye as described here are clinical features of oculomotor nerve palsy.
An oculomotor nerve palsy can be associated with vascular disorders such as diabetes, or particularly posterior communicating artery aneurysm. Other causes include space-occupying tumours and infarction. abscess and trauma.
Angiographic imaging studies are often necessary in the evaluation of acute oculomotor nerve palsy.
A computed tomographic angiography would be a good option here to help exclude a posterior communicating artery aneurysm.
Q.10. A 48 year old man who has been taking medications for asthma for several years has now presented with decreased vision on his right eye. He complains of glare especially during the night. What medication is most likely to cause his visual deterioration?
Correct Answer : C
The diagnosis here is steroid-induced cataracts. Long-term use of steroids can cause cataracts. Oral corticosteroids have more of a systemic effect compared to inhaled corticosteroids. Thus, oral steroids are more likely to be the cause of his cataracts.
There are certain keywords or hints that you may find on the test that would lead towards cataracts.
These are: Exposure to great amounts of UV light i.e. person from Australia who never wears sunglasses. Long-term use of steroids (They may not say the words “steroids” but they may give a scenario with someone who has a long-standing condition that needs the use of steroids)
Q.11. A 52 year old man presents with sudden complete loss of vision from the right eye. He also had been complaining of right sided headaches which would come up more on chewing. On fundoscopy, the retina was pale and a cherry red spot could be seen in the macular region. What is the most likely cause of vision loss?
Correct Answer : A
The most important diagnosis here to exclude would be giant cell arteritis. An old man with symptoms of headache and pain on chewing are classic features.
The central retinal artery can be affected by giant cell arteritis.
Q.12. A 48 year old man attends clinic for a routine eye check up as he has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Fundoscopy shows neovascularization at the retina. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : D
The diagnosis here is proliferative retinopathy. Remember how to distinguish the types of diabetic retinopathy. Also, remember that type I diabetes mellitus is a common cause of retinopathy.
Laser photocoagulation is needed for proliferative retinopathy.
Q.13. A 44 year old hypertensive male, loses vision in his left eye overnight. There is no pain or redness associated with his visual loss. On fundoscopy, venous dilation, tortuosity, and retinal haemorrhages are observed on his left eye. No abnormalities are found on his right eye on fundoscopy. What is the most likely cause of his unilateral visual loss?
Correct Answer : B
Central Retinal Vein Occlusion :
Clinical Presentation : These patients have a clinical presentation similar to those with retinal artery occlusion. There is a sudden loss of vision without pain, redness, or abnormality in pupillary dilation.
Ocular examination by fundoscopy reveals disk swelling, venous dilation, tortuosity, and retinal haemorrhages.
Diagnosis : Retinal haemorrhages are the main way of distinguishing venous obstruction from arterial obstruction.
You cannot have a hemorrhage in the retina if you don't have blood getting into the eye.
Treatment of CRVO is beyond the scope of what you need to know for the exam but it involves immediate referral to an ophthalmologist and/or intra-vitreal steroids.
Q.14. A 49 year old man has sudden complete loss of vision from his left eye over a couple of seconds. There was no pain associated with it and there is no redness of the eye. Ophthalmoscopy reveals a pale retina with a cherry red spot at the macula and attenuation of the vessels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Please see Q-11
Q.15. A 41 year old man presents with visual symptoms and a headache. An ophthalmoscopic examination shows papilloedema. Which anatomical site is most likely to be affected?
Correct Answer : C
Papilloedema is optic disc swelling resulting from raised intracranial pressure.
Q.16. A 39 year old woman has been having gradual loss of vision in both eyes over the past 6 months. She has a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis and has been on treatment for it for the past 4 years. Her intraocular pressure is within normal limits and red reflex is absent in both eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
The diagnosis here is steroid-induced cataracts. Long-term use of steroids as seen in someone with an autoimmune condition like rheumatoid arthritis can cause cataracts.
There are certain keywords or hints that you may find on the exam that would lead towards cataracts.
These are:
- Exposure to great amounts of UV light i.e. person from Australia who never wears sunglasses.
- Long-term use of steroids.
- High myopia
- Trauma to the eye.
Q.17. A 37 year old lady has been suffering from early morning stiffness of her small joints for several months. She takes regular NSAIDs to manage the pain of her joints. She attends clinic with a painful red eye. What is the most likely affected anatomical structure?
Correct Answer : A
One of the ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis is scleritis which presents with an erythematous, painful eye.
Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are common.
Remember these 4:
- Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is the most common.
- Episcleritis presents with erythema (pain is also present but less severe than scleritis)
- Scleritis presents with erythema and pain
- Iatrogenic steroid
- Induced cataracts
Q.18. A 45 year old woman had her visual acuity checked at her local optician. Several hours later she presents to the emergency department with severe ocular pain and redness in her eye. She also complains of seeing coloured halos. What anatomical structure is most likely to be involved?
Correct Answer : B
Angle-closure glaucoma (ACG) is associated with a physically obstructed anterior chamber angle.
This question tests your knowledge of acute angle closure glaucoma. It is important to remember the symptoms of acute angle closure glaucoma worsen when the pupils are dilated (e.g. in a dark room). The history of having her eyes checked but the optician gives us the idea that either :
1.A mildly illuminated room like an optician's room would dilate the pupils enough to worsen symptoms.
2. Topical mydriatics were applied which case led to pupillary dilation which can push the iris into the angle and precipitate AAC in anyone with narrow angles.
Q.19. Which of the following is not a degenerative corneal disease?
Correct Answer : C
Mooren’s ulceration is characterized by painful peripheral corneal ulceration of unknown aetiology. It is not a degenerative corneal disease.
Pain is almost always associated with the onset of Mooren’s ulcer. The eye is usually red and the vision may or may not be affected.
Q.20. A 20 year old man comes with a 3 day history of a burning red left eye with sticky greenish discharge. For the past few mornings, he says that his eyelids are stuck shut on waking. What is the most likely affected anatomical structure?
Correct Answer : D
The given scenario is a clinical presentation of bacterial conjunctivitis. The term itself gives away the anatomical location of the infection – conjunctiva.
It is important to remember the management of bacterial conjunctivitis as this can be asked.
Q.21. A 68 year old patient attends for retinal screening. He is found to have hard exudates, macular oedema and arteriovenous nipping. He is on long term treatment with nifedipine. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Most patients with hypertensive retinopathy have no symptoms.
Chronic hypertension (blood pressure > 140/90 mmHg):
- Usually asymptomatic
- Fundoscopy reveals bilateral attenuation of arterial vessels ('copper or silver wiring), arteriovenous nipping (where the arteries cross the veins) & eventually haemorrhage and exudates.
Key phrases in the exam that help you pick Hypertensive retinopathy as the answer:
- Copper or silver wiring
- Arteriovenous nipping
- Flamed-shaped haemorrhage
Usually one of these 3 terms would appear in the stem
Management :
- Aimed at controlling hypertension.
Q.22. A 60 year old man experienced sudden painless loss of vision. On ophthalmoscopy, multiple flame shaped haemorrhages were seen scattered throughout his fundus with optic disc and macular oedema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Please see Q-13
Q.23. A 52 year old man has a painful, red, photophobic right eye with slightly blurred vision and watering for 2 days. He has no similar episodes in the past. On slit lamp examination, there are cells and flare in the anterior chamber. The pupil is also sluggish to react. What is the most appropriate clinical diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Please see Q- 5
Q.24. A 34 year old homosexual man attends clinic with a history of weight loss and progressive visual deterioration. A fundoscopic examination reveals retinal haemorrhages and yellow-white areas with perivascular exudates. What is the most appropriate causative organism?
Correct Answer : B
The hint here is the homosexual man. For a very inappropriate reason, question writers tend to use the phrase homosexual to hint at the possibility of AIDS in this case.
The combination of weight loss is another clue towards the diagnosis of HIV.
One of the rare manifestations of cytomegalovirus includes retinitis.
It is usually seen in an immunocompromised host (e.g. a positive HIV patient) like in this stem. Although it is rare, retinitis is still the most common manifestation of CMV disease in patients who are HIV positive.
Retinal haemorrhoage is a recognized association with cytomegalovirus retinitis.
Q.25. A 40 year old man has pain, redness and swelling over the nasal end of his right lower eyelid. The eye is watery with some purulent discharge. The redness extends to the nasal peri-orbital area and mucoid discharge can be expressed from the lacrimal punctum. What is the most appropriate clinical diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Acute dacrocystitis is an acute inflammation of the lacrimal sac, often as a result of infection.
Presentation : Symptoms and signs are over the region of the lacrimal sac (but may spread to the nose and face with teeth pain being experienced by some). Therefore, look just lateral and below the bridge of the nose for:
• Excess tears (epiphora)
• Pain
• Swelling and erythema at the inner canthus of the eye Immediate antibiotic therapy may resolve the infection.
Q.26. A 48 year old woman presents with severe left-sided headaches, ocular pain and a red, watering eye. She has intermittent blurring of vision and sees coloured halos. What is the most appropriate next step of action?
Correct Answer : A
The case here is one of acute angle closure glaucoma. Measurement of intraocular pressure would help establish the diagnosis.
Q.27. A 67 year old man has deteriorating vision in his left eye. He complains that his vision has been slowly getting more blurry over the last few months. Glare from the headlights of cars is particularly a problem when driving at night. He has a history of longstanding COPD and is on multiple drugs for it. What medication is most likely to cause his visual deterioration?
Correct Answer : B
Please see Q-10
Q.28. A 49 year old woman complains of reduction of vision and dull pain in her left eye for the past 2 weeks. Her past medical history includes multiple sclerosis which was diagnosed 2 years ago. On examination, both pupils constrict when light is directed to the right eye but both pupils fail to constrict fully when light is directed to the left eye. What is the most likely defect to accompany her diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Optic neuritis is the likely diagnosis here. It usually presents with an acute or subacute unilateral decrease in vision and eye pain particularly on movement. The fact that she has multiple sclerosis is a huge hint. Visual field loss is a known feature of optic neuritis.
Some may argue that scotoma can also be present in optic neuritis but in reality, monocular visual field loss is more frequently seen.
Q.29. A 33 year old woman started seeing tiny black dots followed by a painless sudden loss of vision in her left eye a few hours ago. She says that it initially felt like a curtain was falling down. On fundoscopy, the optic disc is normal. What is the most likely underlying pathology?
Correct Answer : A
Causes of sudden painless loss of vision:
- Retinal detachment
- Vitreous haemorrhage
- Retinal vein occlusion
- Retinal artery occlusion
- Optic neuritis
- Cerebrovascular accident
Among all the causes of painless loss of vision, retinal detachment fits as they give clues like the tiny black dots which are “floaters” and the typical description of a “curtain falling”.
Q.30. A 62 year old hypertensive man comes into clinic with blurred vision. He usually takes amlodipine to manage his blood pressure and has been taking it for the past 10 years. His blood pressure currently ranges between 150/90 mmHg to 160/100 mmHg. An ophthalmoscope reveals dot blot haemorrhages, ischaemic changes and hard exudates. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
This patient has uncontrolled blood pressure. The major risk for arteriosclerotic hypertensive retinopathy is the duration of elevated blood pressure which is seen here as 10 years.
The clinical appearance on a dilated fundoscopic exam and the coexisting hypertension give the diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy.
It is important to note that background retinopathy (non-proliferative) may also have similar findings on the fundoscopy which include microaneurysms (dots), haemorrhage (flame-shaped or blots), and hard exudates (yellow patches) but the history of uncontrolled hypertension makes hypertensive retinopathy a better choice.
Q.31. A 54 year old myopic develops flashes of light and then sudden painless loss of vision. He says that it initially felt like a curtain that was falling down. Ophthalmoscope shows a grey opalescent retina, ballooning forward. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : C
The diagnosis here is retinal detachment.
Treatment options include scleral buckling.
Among all the causes of painless loss of vision, retinal detachment fits as they give clues like the description of a “curtain falling”.
Myopia is also another hint as it is a predisposing factor.
Q.32. A 62 year old man complains of headaches and decreased vision. He has a blood pressure of 170/95 mmHg. Fundoscopy reveals disc swelling and a flame shaped haemorrhage. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Please see Q-21
Q.33. A 30 year old woman has a sudden acute headache with nausea and vomiting. She has a red, painful left eye. The symptoms started when she was watching television in a dark room. Palpation of the globe reveals it to be hard. What is the most likely visual symptom?
Correct Answer : B
In acute angle closure glaucoma, coloured halos around lights are often a complaint by patients. Nausea and vomiting are common and may be the main presenting feature in some patients.
Q.34. A 24 year old has a marked eye pain, sticky red eye with a congested conjunctiva for the past 7 days. He says that his eyes feel stuck together in the morning. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : D
If the patient has infective conjunctivitis for more than 7 days, then start the patient on topical antibiotics.
If it is less than 7 days, then choose the option that has self-care rather than topical antibiotics.
Topical steroids are always going to be the wrong answer unless it is herpes simplex virus conjunctivitis. It is only used if keratitis extends deep into the stroma.
Q.35. An 82 year old woman has developed a painful blistering rash on one side of her forehead and anterior scalp. She also has a red eye, decreased visual acuity and epiphora alongside the forehead tenderness. What is the most likely nerve affected?
Correct Answer : C
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus describes the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.
It accounts for around 10-20% of cases of shingles.
Ophthalmic herpes is a danger to sight and the patient should see an ophthalmologist the same day.
Features :
- Vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the actual eye itself.
- Hutchinson's sign: rash on the tip or side of the nose.
- Indicates nasociliary involvement and is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement
Management :
- Oral antiviral treatment
- Oral corticosteroids may reduce the duration of pain
- Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review
Complications :
- Ocular: conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis
- Ptosis
- Post-herpetic neuralgia
Keratitis is a condition in which the eye's cornea, the front part of the eye, becomes inflamed. Another infectious cause of keratitis is Herpes simplex keratitis which presents with a dendritic corneal ulcer. For herpes simplex keratitis, topical acyclovir is used.
Q.36. A 17 year old has acute pain around his right eye that started a week ago with blistering inflamed rashes in the dermatome distribution of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Please see Q-35
Q.37. A 38 year old female has reduced vision and eye pain worse on her right eye that has progressed over the past few days. She has had a similar episode about a year ago which resolved completely within 3 months. The pain is worse on eye movement. She says that the red colour appears “washed out”. On physical examination, mild weakness of right upper limb was appreciated and exagerrated reflexes were appreciated. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : C
Optic neuritis is diagnosed clinically by symptoms of acute unilateral decrease in vision, eye pain-especially with movement decreased color vision, and documentation of a visual field defect.
The pain is worse on eye movements because the rectus muscle contraction pulls on the optic nerve sheath.
The focal neurological symptoms and exaggerated reflexes all point towards multiple sclerosis which is probably the cause of optic neuritis in which case corticosteroids would be used as part of the management.
Q.38. A 33 year old man has an acute painful, red right eye for the last 24 hours. He complains of blurring of vision. He had a similar episode a year ago. His pupil is irregular in shape and he is very sensitive to light. He has been taking diclofenac for three years now because of back pain and stiffness. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Please see Q-5
Q.39. A 58 year old female presented to her GP with the complaint of double vision. She describes it as seeing two images overlapped with each other when she looks up. She has no family history of thyroid disease or malignancy. On examination, she appears to be nervous and agitated. Both her eyes are seen bulging anteriorly out of the orbit. An eye examination revealed restricted eye movements that evoked pain. When the patient was asked to follow a pen slowly with her eyes from upper to the lower field of vision, lid lag was noticed. Her vitals are as follows: Temperature 37.1 C Respiratory rate 18 breaths/min Heart rate 110 beats/min Blood pressure 145/92 mmHg What is the most appropriate investigation to aid in the diagnosis of this patient?
Correct Answer : B
The findings in this patient (diplopia, tachycardia, lid lag, restricted eye movements) all point towards thyroid eye disease. 90% of thyroid eye diseases are associated with Graves’ disease. Most cases of lid lag are seen in thyroid ophthalmopathy which is known as Graves’ ophthalmopathy.
The inferior rectus muscle is the most commonly affected muscle in Graves’ ophthalmopathy which leads to experiencing vertical diplopia on upgaze with difficulty in elevating eyes due to fibrosis of the muscle.
The best investigation to do in this patient would be a thyroid function test. A free T4 level alone is not the best option to diagnose thyrotoxicosis.
Q.40. A 49 year old hypertensive man has sudden complete loss of vision from his left eye. There was no pain associated with it and there is no redness of the eye. Ophthalmoscopy reveals a pale retina with a cherry red spot at the macula and attenuation of the vessels. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : A
The likely diagnosis here is central retinal artery occlusion. An ocular massage can dislodge the embolus to a point further down the arterial circulation and improve retinal perfusion.
Q.41. A 55 year old man presents with a mild headache, ocular pain and a red eye. He also complains of nausea. He has intermittent blurring of vision with halos. There was no history of trauma. Palpation of the globe of the eye reveals it to be hard. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : C
According to question it a case of Acute Angle Closure glaucoma.
In a clinical scenario, the patient would need Pilocarpine eye drop with oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (Diamox) and YAG peripheral iridotomy
Q.42. A 70 year old man who has a medical history of diabetes mellitus and hypertension experiences acute painless monocular blindness which resolved completely after 30 minutes. He describes this as a curtain coming down vertically into the field of vision of one eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
A painless transient loss of vision is termed amaurosis fugax. They occur when a thrombotic embolus passes through the retinal circulation.
This patient would need to be referred for a cardiovascular workup and antiplatelet treatment. As the thrombus most likely originates from the carotid artery, he would require a carotid artery doppler and possibly an endarterectomy.
Q.43. A 63 year old woman has progressive decrease in her visual acuity and peripheral visual field loss. She is shortsighted and needs to wear glasses. On examination, she has normal pupils on both eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
The symptoms and progressive decrease in vision and myopia point towards open-angle glaucoma. Simple open-angle glaucoma is present in around 2% of people older than 40 years. Other than age, risk factors that need to be known for exam include:
- family history
- black patients
- myopia
Q.44. A 44 year old man has sudden severe eye pain, red eye, visual blurring. It started when he went to watch a movie in the theatre. It was accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Slit-lamp findings include shallow anterior chambers in both eyes with corneal epithelial oedema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
The slit-lamp findings are consistent with acute closed-angle glaucoma. This is supported by the history of entering a dark room (movie theater) when symptoms started along with the severe painful red eye.
Q.45. A 27 year old female was brought to the emergency department by her friend from a movie theatre. She complains of sudden severe pain in the eye followed by vomiting. She sees coloured halos, has blurry vision and a red eye. She gives a past history of recurrent headaches which used to resolve spontaneously. Examination shows fixed, dilated ovoid pupils. What is the most initial investigation?
Correct Answer : D
The history is consistent with acute angle closure glaucoma. Headaches and blurry vision are common.
Symptoms tend to worsen with pupil dilation as seen in this stem when she is watching a movie in a dark theatre.
Vomiting is also a common feature of acute glaucoma. Ocular tonometry is needed to determine the intraocular pressure to help diagnose glaucoma.
Q.46. A 60 year old woman has decreased vision over the past year. She is not able to see well at night. She has change her spectacles several times recently due to refraction changed but she still complains of glare. She has a normal pupil on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
The key to note here is the frequent change spectacles due to changes in refraction. This on top of the complaints of glare and reduced vision points towards cataracts. Sometimes in the exam, they will also give a history of long-term steroid which may be the etiology behind cataract formation.
Q.47. A 67-year-old man has deteriorating vision in his left eye. He has longstanding COPD and is on multiple drug therapy. What medication is likely to cause this visual deterioration?
Correct Answer : B
Prolonged corticosteroids [also topical i.e. eye drops] can cause cataract.
Q.48. A 30-year-old woman had a gradual decrease of visual acuity since the last 3 years. Now she has a disability due to very low vision. What’s the diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
This is not angle closure glaucoma as angle closure glaucoma occurs usually after the age of 50;
In open angle glaucoma visual loss is not evenly gradual rather occurs a bit suddenly at its later part.
It is not cataract as cataract occurs usually in the elderly. In macular degeneration near blindness does not occur rather causes the inability to identify the face or cannot read small prints; otherwise, peripheral vision is not that depressed. In keratitis, pain, redness, photophobia, and vision are ok.
Q.49. A man presents with outward deviation of his right eye and diplopia. Which nerve is affected?
Correct Answer : D
Likely affected muscle is right medial rectus supplied by right oculomotor. It is not right trochlear palsy as in such one iris will be higher than other.
Q.50. A 48-year-old woman who has been taking medications for asthma for a long time has now presented with decreasing vision. What is the most probable cause for her decrease in vision?
Correct Answer : D
Prolonged steroid use leads to cataract formation.
Q.51. A hypertensive male loses vision in his left eye. The eye shows hand movement and a light shined in the eye is seen as a faint light. Fundus exam: flame shaped hemorrhages. The right eye is normal. What is the cause of this patients unilateral blindness?
Correct Answer : C
Central retinal vein thrombosis.
Q.52. A 32-year-old woman had progressive decrease in vision over 3 years. She is now diagnosed as almost blind. What would be the mechanism?
Correct Answer : C
Cataract is unlikely at this age. Uveitis and iritis don’t have such degree of vision loss and iritis and anterior uveitis have pain, redness, and photophobia.
Open-angle glaucoma mostly occurs after the age of 50 years. The answer should be retinopathy (example retinitis pigmentosa).
Q.53. An old woman having decreased vision can’t see properly at night. She has changed her glasses quite a few times but to no effect. She has normal pupil and cornea. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Age and normal pupil and cornea are suggestive of cataract. If it was glaucoma pupil would be a bit dilated and/or oval in shape.
Q.54. A patient comes with sudden loss of vision. On fundoscopy the optic disc is normal. What is the underlying pathology?
Correct Answer : D
At an early stage optic disc remains normal in the retinal detachment.
Causes of sudden painless loss of vision: Retinal detachment, Vitreous haemorrhage, Retinal vein occlusion, Retinal artery occlusion, Optic neuritis, Cerebrovascular accident.
Q.55. A 54-year-old myopic develops flashes of light and then sudden loss of vision. That is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : C
It is a case of retinal detachment with the treatment option of scleral buckling.
Q.56. A patient presents with a painful, sticky red eye with a congested conjunctiva. What is the most suitable treatment?
Correct Answer : C
Bacterial conjunctivitis is treated with antibiotic drops.
Q.57. A 55-year-old man presents with mild headache. He has changed his spectacles thrice in 1 year. there is mild cupping present in the disc and sickle shaped scotoma present in both eyes. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : B
This is a case of open-angle glaucoma, treatment is with pilocarpine.
Q.58. A 62-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of double vision while climbing downstairs. Which of the following nerve is most likely involved?
Correct Answer : B
Oculomotor may cause palsy of the inferior rectus, medial rectus, and superior rectus causing double vision in multiple gaze! But trochlear involving superior oblique only causes diplopia in downgaze.
Q.59. A patient presents with progressive visual deterioration. Examination: large, multiple cotton wool spots in both eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Large multiple cotton wool spots are seen in an early stage of CMV retinitis.
Q.60. A 40-year-old man has pain, redness and swelling over the nasal end of his right lower eyelid. The eye is watery with some purulent discharge. The redness extends on to the nasal peri-orbital area and mucoid discharge can be expressed from the lacrimal punctum. What is the most appropriate clinical diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Acute dacryocystitis
Q.61. A 52-year-old male presents with sudden complete loss of vision from right eye. He also had been complaining of right sided headaches which would come up more on chewing. On fundoscopy, the retina was pale and a cherry red spot could be seen in the macular region. What caused this vision loss?
Correct Answer : A
Pale retina with a cherry red spot in the macular region is seen in CRAO.
Q.62. A 48-year-old woman presents with left-sided severe headache. She also has a red, watering eye and complains of seeing colored haloes in her vision. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer : A
Probable case of angle closure glaucoma requiring measurement of IOP to establish the diagnosis.
Q.63. A 27-year-old female was brought to the emergency department by her friend from a movie theatre. She complains of sudden severe pain in the eye followed by vomiting and also was seeing colored halos. She gives a past history of recurrent headaches which used to resolve spontaneously. Examination: fixed, dilated ovoid pupil seen. What is the first investigation?
Correct Answer : D
Darkness can cause dilatation of the pupil (which occurred in the darkness of the theatre room) which (halfway dilatation) most often precipitates acute attack of angle closure glaucoma and the test to diagnose this is application tonometry.
Q.64. An old woman having decreased vision can’t see properly at night. She has changed her glasses quite a few times but with no effect. She has normal pupils and cornea. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Glaucoma may have dilated oval pupil.
Q.65. A 52-year-old man has a painful, red, photophobic right eye with slightly blurred vision and watering for 3days. He has had no such episodes in the past. On slit lamp examination there are cells and flare in the ant chamber and pupil is sluggish to react. What is the most appropriate clinical diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
In iritis there are flares and cells in the anterior chamber. In iritis pupil may be irregular but in angle closure, glaucoma pupil is slightly dilated and oval in shape. In iritis, there is no halo around light but in glaucoma, there is a halo around light.
Q.66. A 23-year-old man comes with 2 day history of sticky greenish discharge from the eyes with redness. What is the most appropriate option?
Correct Answer : D
Bacterial conjunctivitis can cause sticky greenish discharge.
Q.67. A 45-year-old woman had her visual acuity checked at her local optician. 12 hours later she presents to the emergency department with severe pain and redness in her eye. What is the most appropriate option?
Correct Answer : C
In acute angle closure glaucoma half-dilated pupil is the most likely position which precipitates an acute attack as the trabecular meshworks are mostly closed by peripheral anterior synechia of peripheral iris in this position.
And mild illuminated darkened room like of an optician (also the use of mydriatics accelerates this) or opera (cinema hall) are culprits to make this! As the block occurs in the anterior chamber it is the likely option here.
Q.68. A 75-year-old man who has DM and hypertension experiences acute monocular blindness which resolves after 1 hour. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Amaurosis fugax is a temporary loss of vision in one or both eyes due to a lack of blood flow to the retina.
Q.69. A 55-year-old man who is hypertensive suddenly lost his vision. The retina is pale and fovea appears as a bright cherry red spot. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : D
In central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) retina becomes pale and the fovea becomes cherry red. Hypertension is a major cause of CRAO.
Apply direct pressure for 5-15 seconds, then release. Repeat several times. Ocular massage can dislodge the embolus to a point further down the arterial circulation and improve retinal perfusion.
Q.70. A 30-year-old woman presents with acute headache. She complains of seeing halos especially at night. What is the most likely defect?
Correct Answer : C
The diagnosis is glaucoma (headache and haloes especially at night). In glaucoma there occurs tunnel vision.
Q.71. A 39-year-old male presents with visual symptoms. Ophthalmoscopy shows papilloedema. Which anatomical site is most likely to be affected?
Correct Answer : B
Optic disc
Q.72. A patient with T1DM has a fundus showing micro-aneurysm and hard exudate. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Microenurism, hard exudates are seen in background diabetic retinopathy.
Q.73. A patient with flame shaped hemorrhage on long term treatment with nifedipine. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Stages of hypertensive retinopathy:
Grade 1: Silver wiring
Grade 2: 1 + AV nipping
Grade 3: 2 + flame-shaped hemorrhage
Grade 4: 3 + optic disc edema + macular star.
Q.74. A 32-year-old man suffering from MS (multiple sclerosis) presents with blurring of vision. Ophthalmoscopy shows pallor of the optic disc. Which anatomical site is most likely to be affected?
Correct Answer : A
MS--optic neuropathy which affects optic nerve and long standing optic neuropathy can be seen as pallor of the optic disc in opthalmoscope.
Q.75. Which of the following is not a degenerative corneal disease?
Correct Answer : D
All other options are the degenerative disease of cornea except Mooren’s ulcer which is a type of ulcerative keratitis.
Q.76. A 28-year-old woman has been on treatment for RA (rheumatoid arthritis) for 3 years. She has gradual loss of vision in both eyes. Her IOP (intra-ocular pressure) is normal. Red reflex is absent in both eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Prolonged use of steroids (here in RA) is a known cause of cataracts.
Q.77. A 45-year-old man has had impaired vision and pain on eye movement in his left eye over the last 5 days. He also notes loss of color vision in the same eye. In the left eye, the visual acuity is up to counting fingers. When the pupil is stimulated with light, it dilates. His fundus is normal. What is the most appropriate clinical diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Presentation can be described by either optic neuritis or retrobulbar neuritis. In optic neuritis, there is disc pallor. As in this case disc is normal it is a case of retrobulbar neuritis.
Q.78. A patient comes with sudden loss of vision. Examination: high BP. Fundoscopy: retina appears swollen. Which blood vessel occlusion is involved?
Correct Answer : D
CRVO
Q.79. An 84-year-old woman with drusen and yellow spots in the center of retina. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
In early disease, the macula shows yellowish-colored subretinal deposits called “drusen”.
Q.80. A patient presents with headache, blurring of vision and acuity loss. On fundoscopy, dots and blots were noted with huge red swollen optic disc. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
CRVO
Q.81. A 64-year-old diabetic has come for a routine eye check up. Fundoscopy: new vessels all over the retina. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer : D
Neovascularization suggests proliferative diabetic retinopathy which is treated with laser photocoagulation.
Q.82. A 7-year-old boy presents with proptosis and periorbital edema. What is the immediate action that needs to be taken?
Correct Answer : A
IV morphine and immediate ophthalmoscopy
Q.83. A 37-year-old laborer comes with hours of redness of left eye with foreign body sensation in the same eye. What is the most appropriate option?
Correct Answer : D
Redness with foreign body sensation of the eye in a laborer is most likely due to foreign body in cornea.
Q.84. A patient with sudden severe eye pain, red eye, visual blurring, acuity of only finger counting, nausea, vomiting with a shallow ant chamber that is hazy on shining a torch.What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Sudden severe eye pain, red eye, visual blurring, acuity of only finger counting, nausea, vomiting, shallow anterior chamber that is hazy on shining torch are all classic presentations of acute closed-angle glaucoma.
Q.85. A 75-year-old man with declining vision, cornea and pupils are normal, fundus shows obscured margins. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
In a 75-year-old man with normal cornea and pupils and papilloedema suggests macular degeneration.
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