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RHEUMATOLOGY REVIEW
(Total Questions - 87)Q.1. Which of following favors a diagnosis of SLE?
Correct Answer : C
Raynaund's phenomenon [vasospasm of small vessels causing color changes in fingers and toes] is frequently seen in SLE. It occurs in up to 20-30% of SLE patients and is often associated with other autoimmune diseases.
Incorrect Options-
- Joint deformity- More commonly associated with RA.
- Lung cavitations- More likely associated with TB, fungal infections, or vasculitis.
- Cystoid body in the retina- Linked to metabolic disorders like Tay-Sachs disease or lysosomal storage disease.
Q.2. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with mild hand pain and no significant joint swelling on X-ray. What would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer : A
NSAIDs are typically the first-line management for mild pain and inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis [RA]. They help in reducing pain, stiffness, and mild joint swelling, making them appropriate when the disease is not causing severe joint damage.
Incorrect Options-
- Injection steroid- Used in more severe inflammation or localized joint swelling.
- Positive pressure ventilation- Used in respiratory issues.
- Negative pressure ventilation- Not relevant
Q.3. What type of crystals accumulate in pseudogout?
Correct Answer : D
Pseudo-gout is caused by the accumulation of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the joints. These crystals deposit in the cartilage, leading to inflammation and pain which mimics gout but without uric acid involvement. Pseudo-gout often affects the knees and wrists.
Incorrect Options-
- Phosphate- Involved in kidney stones, not in gout and pseudo-gout.
- Fluoride- Accumulates in bones and teeth, but does not commonly cause joint inflammation.
- Calcium- Involved in the formation of crystals in pseudo-gout but only when in combination with pyrophosphate.
Q.4. A patient complaints of abdominal and joint pain. The abdominal pain is colicky in nature, and accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. There is blood and mucus in the stool. The pain involves ankle and knee joints, on examination a purpuric rash is observed on the thighs and buttocks. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Henoch-Schonlein-purpura [HSP] is a type of vasculitis [inflammation of blood vessels] that commonly affects children but can also occur in adults.
The classic features include-
Abdominal pain [often colicky with, nausea, vomititng, sometimes blood with mucus in stool],Joint pain [particularly ankles and knees], A purpuric rash [often appearing on thighs and buttocks].
Incorrect Options-
- Meningococcal infections- Can cause purpuric rash, severe fever, neck stifness, altered mental statuse, and septic shock.
- Rocky mountain spooted fever- Rash [starting or wrists and ankle], muscle ache, and history of tick exposure.
- SLE- Can cause joint apin and rash, it typically presents with butterfly- shaped rash.
Q.5. A young female has low bone mineral density with a T- score - 3.5. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Q.6. A hypertensive patient complains of pain and swelling in the big toe (MTP joint). Which of following drugs should be discontinued?
Correct Answer : A
Thiazide diuretics→ reduced renal excretion and increased reabsorption of uric acid→ hyperuricemia→urate crystal deposition⇒ Gout.
Q.7. An elderly women presents with sudden loss of vision in right eye and headache. Investigations show high CRP and high ESR. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Temporal arteritis is a condition where the blood vessels in the head become inflamed. This can cause headaches, sudden vision loss, and high levels of inflammation markers like CRP and ESR. Early diagnosis is critical to prevent permanent vision loss.
Q.8. A patient is diagnosed with temporal arteritis. What is the appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : A
Temporal arteritis, also known as giant cell arteritis, is a serious condition involving inflammation of the blood vessels, primarily in the temples. The correct treatment is corticosteroids which are essential for managing this condition. These medications rapidly reduce inflammation and prevent complications such as vision loss, which can occur if the condition is left untreated.
Incorrect Options-
- NSAIDs [eg., ibuprofen] may alleviate pain but are not effective in controlling the underlying inflammation or preventing complications.
- Beta-blockers are used for managing conditions related to heart or hypertension.
- Methotrexate can be used as an adjunct in patients who cannot tolerate steroids or need a steroid-sparing agent but is not a primary treatment.
Q.9. An old female patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis. Which one of the following is an exogenous cause?
Correct Answer : B
Vitamin D deficiency is an external [exogenous] factor because it's related to diet and sun exposure. Without enough vitamin D, the body can't absorb calcium properly, leading to weaker bones and osteoporosis.
- Incorrect Options-
- Age- internal process
- Vitamin C deficiency- not a main cause of osteoporosis.
- Sex- internal biological factor
Q.10. A patient with cervical spondylitis came with muscle atrophy in hypothenar muscles and decreased sensation in the ulnar nerve distribution. Studies showed alertness in ulnar nerve function at the elbow. What is your next step in the management of this patient?
Correct Answer : A
Physiotherapy is the best initial management as the patient has a known case of cervical spondylitis and is now suffering from ulnar nerve symptoms. It helps restore strength, improve flexibility, and manage pain.
Q.11. A patient with cervical spondylitis , presents with paresis of the little finger, atrophy of the hypothenar muscles, EMG confirms ulnar tunnel compression of the ulnar nerve, what is your action now?
Correct Answer : C
EMG confirms ulnar nerve compression, causing paresis and muscle atrophy. Surgery to decompress the nerve is the definitive treatment to relieve pressure and restore function.
Incorrect Option-
- Steroids give temporary relief but don't fix compression.
- A CT scan is not needed for the decision.
- Radial nerve compression will not manifest the following features.
Q.12. A patient with polymyalgia rheumatica has elevated ESR. What is the other features of this condition?
Correct Answer : B
Polymyalgia rheumatica causes pain and stiffness, especially in the shoulders, neck, hips, and thighs but muscle strength remains the same.
Incorrect Options-
- Muscle weakness isn't a feature.
- It doesn't affect distal muscles.
Q.13. A patient presents with osteoarthritis & swelling in distal interphalangeal joint. What is the name of this swelling?
Correct Answer : B
Heberden's nodes are bony swelling that forms on the distal interphalangeal [DIP] joints, a common feature of osteoarthritis.
Incorrect Options-
- Bouchard's nodes -occur on proximal interphalangeal [PIP] joints.
- Cellulitis- This is a bacterial skin infection.
- Lymphangitis- Its infection of lymphatic vessels.
Q.14. An 80-year-old lady presented to your office with a 6-month history of stiffness in her hand, bilaterally. This stiffness worsens in the morning and quickly subsides as the patient begins daily activities. She has no other significant medical problems. On examination the patient has bilateral bony swellings at the margins of the distal interphalangeal joints on the (2nd-5th) digits. No other abnormalities were found on the physical examination. These swellings represent as which of the following?

Correct Answer : A
The history suggests osteoarthritis which can present as Heberden’s nodes or Bouchard’s nodes. The names of the nodes differ according to the location Heberden’s nodes are at the DIPJ while Bouchard’s nodes are at the PIPJ.
Reference: Saunders’pocket essentials of Clinical medicine (ParveenKUMAR)
Q.15. Regarding Boutonniere deformity which of the following statements is true ?

Correct Answer : A
Boutonniere deformity is when the middle joint [PIP] is flexed while the [DIP] is hyperextended.
Q.16. A young patient presents with a red, tender, swollen big left toe [1st metatarsal], along with tender swollen foot and tender left leg. His temperature is 38C. What is the likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
The presentation of a red, swollen, tender big toe along with inflammation spreading to the foot and leg and fever suggests cellulitis, which is a bacterial skin infection.
Causative organism- Streptococcus pyogenes [group A Streptococcus], Staphylococcus aureus.
Q.17. A patient with history of parotid and salivary gland enlargement complains of dry eyes, mouth and skin. Lab results show HLA-B8 and DR3 ANA positivity, along with rheumatoid factor positivity, what is the course of treatment?
Correct Answer : B
This patient likely has Sjogren's syndrome, an autoimmune condition which is characterized by dryness of eyes, mouth, and skin.
The treatment primarily focuses on symptom relief-
- Eye drops artificial tears for dry eyes.
- Saliva replacements or sialogogues to manage dry mouth.
Incorrect Option-
- Physostigmine- Used in myasthenia gravis.
- NSAIDs- don't address dryness.
- Plenty of fluid- helpful but not sufficient for severe dryness.
Q.18. An elderly patient presents with unilateral headache, chronic shoulder and limb pain, positive rheumatoid factor and positive ANA. What is the appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : C
This presentation suggests giant cell arteritis, especially with the symptoms of unilateral headache and systemic symptoms. Chronic pain in the shoulders and limbs also indicates polymyalgia rheumatica. Both conditions are treated effectively with corticosteroids, which reduce inflammation and prevent complications like vision loss.
Q.19. A patient with recurrent migratory inflammatory arthritis and a history of mouth ulcers now presents with abdominal pain. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
Recurrent migratory arthritis, mouth ulcers, and abdominal pain strongly suggest IBD, such as Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis.
Incorrect Options-
- Gout- Acute arthritis in one joint not migratory.
- RF- Unlikely without a history of streptococcus infection.
Q.20. What is the management for acute gout?
Correct Answer : B
NSAIDs [ibuprofen, naproxen] are the first-line treatment for acute gout attacks. They help reduce inflammation and relieve pain quickly.
Incorrect options-
- Allopurinol- This is used for long-term management, not acute attack.
- Paracetamol- Not as effective as NSAIDs.
- Gold salt- Not used in modern treatment, and is reserved for other conditions like RA.
Q.21. What is the treatment of acute gouty arthritis?
Correct Answer : B
Indomethacin [an NSAID] is the first-line management for acute gouty arthritis, as it effectively reduces inflammation and pain during flare-ups
Q.22. All of the following can be used for the treatment of gout, EXCEPT?
Correct Answer : A
Gold salt is the least relevant option and is not used in managing gout, whether acute or chronic.
Q.23. What is the best investigation for diagnosing Giant Cell Arteritis?
Correct Answer : A
A temporal artery biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosing Giant Cell Arteritis [GCA]. It allows direct examination of the artery to look for inflammation, which helps in confirming the diagnosis.
Biopsy findings- mononuclear cell infiltration, multinucleated giant cells, a fragment of the internal elastic lamina, and narrowing of the lumen.
Incorrect Options-
- Biopsy from bone marrow is used for blood disorders.
- Lumbar puncture is used for suspected neurological conditions like meningitis.
- CBC may show elevated levels but can't confirm GCA.
Q.24. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis seeks advice on most effective way to decrease joint disability in the future. What is your recommendation?
Correct Answer : B
The most effective way to prevent joint disability in rheumatoid arthritis is early and consistent treatment with DMARDs, like methotrexate. These drugs slow the progression of the disease, reduce inflammation, and prevent joint damage over time.
Incorrect Options-
- Cold application temporarily reduces stiffness and pain but doesn't stop damage to joints.
- Heat packs may relieve symptoms but do not prevent joint disability.
- None of the above is incorrect
Q.25. Osteoporosis primarily depends on which of the following factors?
Correct Answer : A
Age is a key factor in the development of osteoporosis. As we age, bone density naturally decreases, making bones more fragile and prone to fractures.
Q.26. A patient presents with SLE. Which of the following medications has the least side effect?
Correct Answer : A
Aspirin is generally the least likely to cause significant side effects among the options. It is commonly used for managing pain and inflammation in SLE and is well tolerated in low doses.
Q.27. A 30-years old male presents with a history of pain and swelling in his right knee. Synovial fluid aspiration revealed a yellow, opaque fluid with variable viscosity. WBC = 150,000cu/mm, neutrophil=80%, poor mucin clot. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
- Yellow opaque fluid with variable viscosity indicated infection.
- A WBC count of 1,50,000 per cubic millimeter points toward an infectious process.
- 80% neutrophils are indicative of an acute inflammatory response.
- Pure mucin clot suggests that the infection has caused significant joint damage.
Q.28. What is the treatment for Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis?
Correct Answer : B
Steroids [such as prednisone] are commonly used to manage inflammation and reduce symptoms in JIA, especially during flare-ups.
Incorrect Options-
- Aspirin- It was used in the past but is generally avoided now in children due to the increased risk of Reye's syndrome.
- Penicillamine- Used in RA.
- Hydroxychloroquine- Primarily used for lupus.
Q.29. A man presents with pain and swelling of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Gout is the most likely diagnosis, especially when it affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint, which is the classic site for podagra [ a term specifically used for gout affecting the big toe].
Q.30. What of the following statement about Rheumatoid Arthritis is true?
Correct Answer : A
In RA chronic inflammation leads to destruction of articular cartilage and erosion of underlying bone, causing joint deformity and disability over time.
Incorrect Option-
- M: F is 1:3
- Nodules are present in elbows & lungs
- it doesn't affect lumbar spines
Q.31. Which of the following is a typical characteristic of pseudo-gout?
Correct Answer : A
- Pseudogout: Deposition of Calcium Pyrophosphates Dehydrate crystal, +ve birefringent, rhomboid shape, (CACO3)
- Gout: Deposition of Monosodium Urate Monohydrate, –ve of birefringent, needle shape.
Q.32. A female patient is diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica. What clinical findings will support this diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Polymyalgia rheumatica is a syndrome with pain or stiffness of muscles, usually in the neck, shoulders, and hips, caused by an inflammatory condition of blood vessels. Predisposes to temporal arteritis. Usually treated with oral Prednisone.
Q.33. A 14-year-old girl presents proteinuria, swelling in her legs, and elevated blood pressure. She also reports feeling more fatigued and has experienced changes in urine color. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Lupus nephritis is a common and serious complication of SLE characterized by kidney inflammation, which can result in proteinuria, edema, and hypertension.
Q.34. Which of the following medications is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug [DMARD] for rheumatoid arthritis [RA] ?
Correct Answer : B
Disease Modifying Anti-Rheumatic Drugs (DMARDs): Chloroquine & Hydroxychloroquine, Cyclosporin A, D-penicillamine, Gold salts, Infliximab, Methotrexate (MTX), Sulfasalazine (SSZ).
Q.35. Which of the following medications can cause SLE- like syndrome?
Correct Answer : A
- High risk:
1. Procainamide (antiarrhythmic), 2. Hydralazine (antihypertensive)
- Moderate to low risk:
1. Infliximab (anti-TNF-), 2. Isoniazid (antibiotic), 3. Minocycline (antibiotic), 4. Pyrazinamide (antibiotic), 5. Quinidine (antiarrhythmic), 6. D-Penicillamine (anti-inflammatory), 7. Carbamazepine (anticonvulsant), 8. Oxcarbazepine (anticonvulsant), 9. Phenytoin (anticonvulsant), 10. Propafenone (antiarrhythmic).
Q.36. What is the most important factor in predicting the prognosis of a patient with SLE?
Correct Answer : A
Renal involvement is one of the most significant factors that influence a patient's prognosis with SLE. Kidney damage particularly lupus nephritis, can lead to severe complications.
Q.37. A patient presents with back pain that is relieved by ambulation, what is the best initial treatment?
Correct Answer : C
Physical therapy is the first-line management for spinal stenosis because it helps improve flexibility, strength, and posture, which can relieve pain and improve mobility.
Spinal stenosis leads to the narrowing of the spinal canal, leading to nerve compression. This often results in back pain that is relieved by walking or ambulation as the posture of a spinal canal opens up due to posture change.
Q.38. Which of the following dietary supplement may help manage osteoarthritis symptoms?
Correct Answer : A
Ginger has anti-inflammatory properties that can help reduce pain and stiffness in people with osteoarthritis. It can be taken in supplement form or used fresh in cooking.
Q.39. What is the mechanism of joint destruction in rheumatoid arthritis [RA] ?
Correct Answer : B
In rheumatoid arthritis the immune system mistakenly attacks the joints, causing inflammation. Anti-inflammatory cytokines like TNF-alpha and IL -1 play a key role by promoting inflammation, which damages the synovial membrane. Over time this leads to joint destruction, swelling, and pain.
Q.40. A 27-year-old male presents with symmetric oligoarthritis involving the knees and elbows, painful oral ulcers for 10 years, and recent onset of arthritis and abdominal pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
According to ISG criteria, used to define the illness. At least 3 episodes of oral ulceration must occur in 12 months. A physician or the patient must observe them and maybe herpetiform or aphthous.
At least 2 of the following must occur-
1) recurrent, painful genital ulcers that heal with scarring; 2) ophthalmic lesions, including anterior or posterior uveitis, hypopyon, or retinal vasculitis; 3) skin lesions, 4) pathergy, which is defined as a sterile erythematous papule larger than 2 mm in size appearing 48 hours after the skin pricks with a sharp, sterile needle (a dull needle may be used as a control). 5) Neurologic manifestations, Headache, Meningoencephalitis, Seizures, Cranial nerve abnormalities 6) Vasculopathy-DVT, thrombophlebitis, Noninflammatory vascular lesions including arterial and venous occlusions, varices, and aneurysms 7) Arthritis, 8) Gastrointestinal manifestations: Symptoms suggestive of IBD, Diarrhea or gastrointestinal bleeding, ulcerative lesions, Flatulence, Abdominal pain, Vomiting, and Dysphagia, 9) Other manifestations: Cardiac lesions include arrhythmias, pericarditis, vasculitis of the coronary arteries, endomyocardial fibrosis, granulomas in the endocardium, Epididymitis, Glomerulonephritis, Lymphadenopathy, Myositis, Polychondritis.
Q.41. A 74-year-old female patient presents with the complains of pain and stiffness in the hip and shoulder girdle muscles. She is also experiencing low grade fever and has depression. O/E: no muscle weakness detected. Which of the following is the investigation of choice?
Correct Answer : D
The patient's symptoms are suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica, a condition often seen in older adults. PMR is characterized by inflammation, and CRP is a blood test that helps measure the level of inflammation in the body.
Q.42. A patient presents with rheumatoid arthritis, which of the following options may relieve symptoms in early stages of disease?
Correct Answer : C
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic, systemic inflammatory disorder that may affect many tissues and organs, but mainly joints. It involves an inflammation of the capsule around the joints (synovium). Increased stiffness early in the morning is often a prominent feature of the disease and typically lasts for more than an hour. Gentle movements may relieve symptoms in the early stages of the disease.
Q.43. A patient with gouty arthritis and negative birefringence crystals, what is the most likely mechanism?
Correct Answer : A
Gout (also known as Podagra when it involves the big toe) is a medical condition characterized by recurrent attacks of acute inflammatory arthritis — a red, tender, hot, swollen joint. The metatarsalphalangeal joint at the base of the big toe is the most commonly affected (50% of cases). However, it may also present as tophi, kidney stones, or urate nephropathy.
- Mechanism - A disorder of purine metabolism, that occurs when its final metabolite, uric acid crystallizes in the form of monosodium urate, precipitating in joints, on tendons, and in the surrounding tissues.
Q.44. An elderly patient presents with a history of bilateral knee pain and crepitus for several years. They now present with acute swelling of the right knee, on examination you find edema over dorsum and tibia of right leg, what is the best investigation to order?
Correct Answer : A
The presence of acute swelling and edema in the lower limb could indicate a venous problem such as DVT, or venous insufficiency. A lumbar venogram is used to visualize the veins and provides an assessment for abnormalities like thrombosis or venous obstruction.
Q.45. A 40-year-old male presents with sudden onset of joint swelling with no history of trauma or chronic disease. What investigation would you consider?
Correct Answer : B
The symptoms are suggestive of an acute inflammatory condition like gout or pseudo-gout, both of which can cause acute joint swelling. ESR is a general marker of inflammation and can help identify inflammatory arthritis or systemic conditions causing joint swelling.
Q.46. A female patient presents with sudden onset blindness in the right eye without pain. There is tenderness over the temporal region when combing hair. How will you manage this patient?
Correct Answer : C
Giant-cell arteritis (temporal arteritis): inflammatory disease of blood vessels most commonly involving large and medium arteries of the head, predominately the branches of the external carotid artery. It is a form of vasculitis.
- Treatment:
- Corticosteroids, typically high-dose prednisone (40–60 mg), must be started as soon as the diagnosis is suspected (even before the diagnosis is confirmed by biopsy) to prevent irreversible blindness secondary to ophthalmic artery occlusion.
- Steroids do not prevent the diagnosis from later being confirmed by biopsy, although certain changes in the histology may be observed towards the end of the first week of treatment and are more difficult to identify after a couple of months.
- The dose of prednisone is lowered after 2–4 weeks and slowly tapered over 9–12 months. Oral steroids are at least as effective as intravenous steroids, except in the treatment of acute visual loss where intravenous steroids appear to be better.
Q.47. A patient presents with oral ulcers, genital ulcers and arthritis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Behçet's disease: rare immune-mediated systemic vasculitis, described as a triple-symptom complex of recurrent oral aphthous ulcers, genital ulcers, and uveitis. As a systemic disease, it can also involve visceral organs and joints.
Q.48. A patient with a 5- year history of HTN on thiazide diuretics presents to the ER at midnight with severe pain in the left foot. O/E the patient is febrile, with erythema, swelling, and tenderness of the left big toe. No other joints are involved. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
One of the side effects of thiazides is Hyperuricemia which predisposes to Gout.
Q.49. A joint aspirate, reveals gram-negative diplococci consistent with Neisseria gonorrhoeae. What is the appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : A
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the causative agent of gonococcal arthritis, and the treatment of choice is ceftriaxone, a broad-spectrum third-generation cephalosporin.
Q.50. A patient presents with pain in the sacroiliac joint, morning stiffness. All of the following findings will be found, EXCEPT?
Correct Answer : B
- This inflammatory joint disease is characterized by persistent – ve tests for RF.
- It develops in men before the age of 40 with HLA B27.
- It causes synovial and extra-synovial inflammation involving the capsule, periarticular periosteum, cartilage, and subchondral bone.
- Large central joints are particularly involved such as (sacroiliac, symphysis pubis & intervertebral joints). Resolution of inflammation leads to extensive fibrosis and joint fusion, but no subcutaneous nodules since it's not a seropositive disease.
Q.51. Regarding the drug allopurinol, which one of the following statement is true?
Correct Answer : B
Indication of Allopurinol: Prevention of attacks of gouty arthritis uric acid nephropathy. [but not in acute attack].
Allopurinol is used to treat Hyperuricemia along with its complications “chronic gout & kidney stones”.
Q.52. A painful knee swelling and a positive ballotment test. What’s the next best step in the investigation?
Correct Answer : D
Arthrocentesis is the process of widrawing fluid from a joint using a needle. In case of a painful knee swelling with a positive ballotment test,it is the next best step to confirm diagnosis [eg- septic artritis ,gout] etc., and obtain fluid for analysis.
Q.53. Which is the most common organisms responsible for septic arthritis?
Correct Answer : A
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of septic artritis in adults and children. It is a gram-positive bacterium that can spread through the blood stream or direct inoculation [eg., surgery,injury]. It typically presents with fever, joint pain, and limited movement.
Q.54. A-28-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a 2-month history of fleeting arthralgia. Her past medical history is unremarkable. On examination: she is afebrile and her right knee joint shows mild swelling with some tenderness, but no other physical findings. CBC: Hb- 124 g/L = 12.4 g\dl) WBC: 9.2 x 109/L, ESR: 80 mm/h. Rheumatoid factor: Negative, VDRL: Positive, Urine: RBC 15-20/hpf, Protein 2+, What is the most appropriate investigation at this time ?
Correct Answer : D
- Young female, with a joint problem, high ESR, Proteinuria, and a positive VDRL (which is false positive in SLE).
- A blood culture is not needed (the patient is afebrile, and inflammatory features in the joint aren’t so intense.
- A.S.O. titer is also not top on your list although post streptococcus. Glomerulonephritis is possible but not top on the list since it is more common in the pediatric age group.
So the answer would be double-stranded DNA which is one of the serology criteria in SLE.
Q.55. A patient has ulnar nerve entrapment. What is your recommended course of action?
Correct Answer : A
Ulnar nerve entrapment, often occuring at the elbow [cubital tunnel syndrome], involves compression of the ulnar nerve. Cubital fossa release [surgical decompresssion] is the recommended intervention for severe or persistent cases when conservative treatments like- rest, splinting, or physical therapy fail.
Q.56. A 74-year-old female patient a known case of Cushing’s syndrome had a hip fracture falling from a standing height, what additional screening will you perform while treating her fracture?
Correct Answer : C
In Cushing's syndrome, high cortisol levels weaken bones by increasing bone loss and reducing bone formation. Combined with age-related bone thinning, this makes fractures from minor falls more likely.
Incorrect Options-
- Hyperparathyroidim can cause osteoporosis but isn't directly linked with Cushing's syndrome.
- Osteomyelitis is a bone infection which presents as pain, swelling and fever.
- Osteomalacia presents as softening of bones due to vitamin D defciency.
Q.57. A 30-year-old women complains of sharp pain in the index finger, particularly during activities like using scissors or trimming nails. The pain originates at the base of the finger in the metacarpophalangeal joint, and the finger appears flexed in a downward position [flexed DIP] and cause pain when extending. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
Loss of extensor tendon continuity at the DIPJ causes the joint to rest in an abnormally flexed position, the classic mechanism of injury in a finger held rigidly in extension or nearly full extension.
Q.58. A 65-year-old female patient with a 10-year history of symmetrical polyarthritis is admitted to the hospital. Examination reveals splenomegaly, ulceration over lateral malleoli and synovitis of the wrists, shoulders and knees. Investigation shows WBC-2500. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : A
Felty’s syndrome: triad of RA, neutropenia, and splenomegaly.
Q.59. What is the standard treatment for a typical case of giant cell arteritis?
Correct Answer : A
Steroids are the most preferable treatment for giant cell arteritis. They quicly reduce inflammation and prevent serious complications like vision loss, which is a major concern in GCA.
Incorrect Options-
- Insulin is used to manage diabetes, not inflammation.
- Antibiotics are used to treat infection, and GCA is not an infection.
- Anti-inflammatory drugs are useful in minor inflammation but not strong enough for GCA.
Q.60. What is the best way for bone and muscle to prevent aging process?
Correct Answer : A
Low resistance exercises, like light weight training with more repetitions, improve muscle endurance and mainatin bone strength. This helps combat age-related muscle loss [sarcopenia] and osteoporosis.
Q.61. An adult male during exercise suddenly felt pain in the middle of his right thigh posteriorly. On examination he has discoloration at the same site and a mass in the hamstring muscles. No bone tenderness or palpable defect. What is the appropriate management?
Correct Answer : D
This initial treatment helps in reducing swelling and pain in acute muscle injuries.
Q.62. A patient presented with left arm stiffness and pain, he can’t abduct his arm. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Subacromial bursitis is a condition caused by inflammation of the bursa that separates the superior surface of the supraspinatus tendon from the deep surface of the deltoid muscle.
- Subacromial bursitis often presents with a constellation of symptoms called impingement syndrome. Pain along the front and side of the shoulder is the most common symptom and may cause weakness and stiffness. If the pain resolves and weakness persists other causes should be evaluated such as a tear of the rotator cuff or a neurological problem arising from the neck or entrapment of the suprascapular nerve. The onset of pain may be sudden or gradual and may or may not be related to trauma. Impingement may be brought on by sports activities, such as overhead throwing sports and swimming, or overhead work such as painting, carpentry, or plumbing. Activities that involve repetitive overhead activity, or directly in front, may cause shoulder pain. Direct upward pressure on the shoulder, such as leaning on an elbow may increase pain. Night-time pain, especially sleeping on the affected shoulder, is often reported.
- Localized redness or swelling are less common and suggest an infected subacromial bursa. The patient actively abducts the arm and a painful arc occurs between 80° and 120°. Shoulder arthritis can be one of three types of arthritis in the glenohumeral joint of the shoulder The main symptom of shoulder arthritis is pain; this is due to the grinding of the bones against each other because of the lack of cartilage. Pain usually occurs in the front of the shoulder and is worse with motion.
People with shoulder arthritis will also experience moderate to severe weakness, stiffness developing over many years, and the inability to sleep on the affected shoulder. Diagnosis is simple; usually, the doctor can tell if you have shoulder arthritis by your symptoms, but he she will most likely also take an X-ray or MRI.
Q.63. A patient came with unilateral knee swelling for 2 days, under microscope the synovial fluid findings are as follows- needle like morphology and strong negative birefringence. Which of the following drug is an appropriate option for treatment?
Correct Answer : B
The needle-like crystals with negative birefringence confirm gout, caused by uric acid buildup. Indomethacin is the first-line treatment to quickly reduce pain and inflammation during an acute gout attack.
Q.64. An 80-year-old retired carpenter complains of pain in his left shoulder, he can't sleep on his left side because of the pain, also he is unable to raise his arm up. On examination- limited range of motion, x-ray showed osteopenia. What is the the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : C
The symptoms described particularly pain and difficulty in raising the arm, are consistent with sub-acromial bursitis. This condition occurs when the bursa under the acromion process becomes inflamed, often due to repetitive overhead motions, as expected in a carpenter.
Q.65. A patient presents with dysphagia, ptosis, and double vision, the disease presenting as the mentioned symptoms is due to which of the following?
Correct Answer : A
These symptoms point to myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease where antibodies attack acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This disrupts nerve signals to muscles leading to the above-mentioned symptoms.
Q.66. A patient presents with pain in his first metatarsophalangeal, joint swelling, edema and normal WBC. What is the most likely option leading to the mentioned features?
Correct Answer : A
The symptoms described are highly suggestive of gout, a condition caused by the primary component of uric acid crystals in the joints. Monosodium urate crystals are the primarycomponent of these deposits, leading to pain, swelling, and inflammation seen in gout attacks.
Q.67. A patient presents with excruciating pain in the great toe, on examination there was pain on moving the 1st MTP joint and the overlying skin was skin was erythematous. Which of the following options causes the mentioned features?
Correct Answer : A
The symptoms described, particularly the excruciating pain in the big toe joint, are classic for gout. Gout is a type of inflammatory arthritis caused by the build-up of uric acid crystals, primarily sodium urate crystals, in the joints.
Q.68. A young patient presents with a history of acute painful swelling of the first metatarsophalangeal joint, redness, tenderness, and fever of 38c. What is the etiology behind the features?
Correct Answer : A
The combination of symptoms - acute painful swelling, redness, tenderness, and fever are highly suggestive of septic arthritis, which is an infection within a joint. In this case, the first metatarsophalangeal joint is affected.
Q.69. A patient suffers from deep laceration in the anterior surface of the wrist, what abnormality is expected?
Correct Answer : D
The anterior surface of the wrist is the location of the median nerve, which is crucial for thumb movement and sensation. A deep laceration in this area can injure the medican nerve leading to a condition called '' ape hand deformity''. In this condition, the patient loses the ability to oppose the thumb to other fingers, making tasks like picking up small objects difficult.
Q.70. A 20-year-old man sustained a deep laceration on the anterior surface of the wrist. His median nerve was injured, this injury would result in which of the following?
Correct Answer : D
Median nerve injury leads to the inability to oppose the thumb to other fingers.
Q.71. When group A hemolytic streptococcus cause rheumatic fever?
Correct Answer : C
Acute rheumatic fever is a complication of respiratory infections. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a complication of either strep throat or streptococcal skin infection.
Q.72. A patient presents with arthritis in two large joints & pansystolic murmur “carditis”. There is previous history of URTI. Which of the following is the most important next step?
Correct Answer : B
The diagnosis of Rheumatic fever can be made when two of the major Modified Jones criteria, or one major criterion plus two minor criteria, are present along with evidence of streptococcal infection: elevated or rising Antistreptolysin ‘ASO’ titer or DNAase.
Q.73. Which of the following drugs used for the treatment of SLE has the least side effects?
Correct Answer : A
Methotrexate, corticosteroid, and hydroxychloroquin have comparatively more sideeffect.
Q.74. What is the duration of drug therapy in Rheumatoid fever?
Correct Answer : C
- Primary prevention for preventing initial infection with group A streptococcus] is a short-term term typically 10 days of antibiotics.
- Secondary prevention [preventing recurrent rheumatic fever, usually 5 years or 10 years depending on the presence of carditis.
Q.75. An elderly lady presented with chronic knee pain bilaterally, that increases with activity & decreases with rest. The most likely diagnosis is?
Correct Answer : A
The most likely diagnosis for an elderly patient presenting with chronic knee pain bilaterally, which increases with activity and decreases with rest, is osteoarthritis.
Q.76. An old woman presents with complain of hip pain that increases by walking and peaks by the end of the day and keeps her awake at night, she also complains of morning stiffness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
OA is a degenerative joint disease that commonly affects weight-bearing joints like the hips.
The pain pattern described is typical of OA - it tends to worsen with activity and improve with rest, and can also cause morning stiffness.
Q.77. An old patient presents with bilateral knee swelling, pain, and a normal ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
OA is a degenerative joint disease that commonly affects the weight-bearing joints like the knee. Bilateral knee involvement and normal ESR are consistent with OA.
Q.78. What is the initial management for a middle age patient who is newly diagnosed with knee osteoarthritis?
Correct Answer : D
- Quadriceps muscle strengthening helps to improve knee stability and reduce pain.
- It is a non-pharmacological, conservative approach that can be started early in the disease course.
Q.79. What is the useful exercise for osteoarthritis in old age to maintain muscle and bone health?
Correct Answer : C
- Walking is a low-impact exercise that helps improve cardiovascular health, increase bone density, and strengthen muscles.
- Weight exercise is a low resistance high repetition weight training that is beneficial for building muscle strength and maintaining bone health.
Q.80. A male patient presents with swelling, erythema, and tenderness in left knee and right wrist, patient gives history of international travel 2-months back, aspiration of joint fluid reveal-gram negative diplococci. What is most likely organism responsible for the following condition?
Correct Answer : A
- Gram-negative diplococci is a characterstic feature of Neisseria species.
- Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause arthritis, particularly in young adults.
- A history of international travel increases the likelihood of exposure to Neisseria gonorrhea.
Q.81. The triad of heart block, uveitis and sacroiliitis is a feature of which of the following pathologies?
Correct Answer : A
- AS is a chronic inflammatory disease that primarily affects the spine, but can also involve other organs.
- The triad of heart block, uveitis, and sacroiliitis is known as ''ocular-spinal-cardiac syndrome'' and is a classic manifestation of AS.
Q.82. A patient presents with urethritis, pain in left knee joint, urethral swab- positive pus cells , negative for Neisseria meningitides and chlamydia. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer : B
Reiter's arthritis: a characteristic triad of symptoms: inflammatory arthritis of large joints, inflammation of the eyes in the form of conjunctivitis or uveitis, and urethritis in men or cervicitis in women.
Q.83. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis he an X-Ray for his fingers which shows permanent lesion that may lead to permanent dysfunction. What is the underlying process?
Correct Answer : A
In RA, the synovium, lining the joints becomes inflamed and produces excessive amounts of inflammatory substances including cytokines and enzymes that damage the cartilage and bone leading to permanent changes and dysfunction.
Q.84. Which of the following statements are correct regarding ankylosing spondylitis?
Correct Answer : A
Pulmonary involvement in AS can lead to various lung complications, including upper lung fibrosis. This is due to chronic inflammation and scarring of lung tissue.
Q.85. A patient is a known case of HTN. He suffers from recurrent attack of gouts 3-4 per year, BUN and creatine are high. What is the appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer : B
Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that reduces uric acid production in the body. This helps to lower uric acid levels in the blood and prevent gout attacks.
Q.86. A female presents with complains of photosensitivity, malar rash, joint pain and had RBCS in urine. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer : D
- Photosensitivity, malar rash and, joint pain are common symptoms of SLR.
- RBCs in the urine indicate kidney involvement, a frequent complication of SLE, often referred to as lupus nephritis.
Q.87. A patient with early rheumatoid arthritis presents at your clinic. What is your management to decrease the limitation of movement?
Correct Answer : B
Explanation: RA usually requires lifelong treatment, including medications, physical therapy, exercise, education, and possibly surgery. Early, aggressive treatment for RA can delay joint destruction. MEDICATIONS: Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs): These drugs are the first drugs usually tried in patients with RA. They are prescribed in addition to rest, strengthening exercises, and anti-inflammatory drugs.